Veeky Forums claims to be smarter than Veeky Forums, yet can't answer basic math questions

Veeky Forums claims to be smarter than Veeky Forums, yet can't answer basic math questions

really makes you think

Other urls found in this thread:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox
twitter.com/SFWRedditImages

dunno 0.5

25% now fuck off from this board

lmao have you even read this board, who is claiming we are smarter?

no you're proving his point

there's 4 possibilities, equally likely: HH, HT, TH, TT. The given information rules out TT, so we have HH, HT, TH. So the odds are 1/3.

1/3

"One is heads", and you have two coins, so there are three possibilities:

Heads - Tails
Tails - Heads
Heads - Heads
(only tails- tails excluded)

One must account that the coins are different.

0% as probability is a chinese conspiracy meant to decrease the genetic stock of strong alpha white males

point five to the power of two

'bout tree fiddy

...

baited

No because the question is asked before the coins are thrown. You're assuming they are thrown one after the other and that the result of one is already known beforehand (the question makes a requirement not a statement)

100%.

First coin has a 50% chance of being heads, second coin also has a 50% chance of being heads. 50+50 = 100. Easy.

...

ITT: uneducated fucks whose interests stop at the humanities. Google the the hypergeometric distribution you degenerates

the problem with the op pic is that it doesnt specify in what manner the trials are dependent

ye

this

whats the issue with the phrasing exactly?

This

How is it not 1/3? Fuck you fags.

It's ambiguous whether you know which one is definitely heads. Given how the real world works, one tends to presuppose that knowing one is heads and knowing which one is heads go together, and that presupposition colors the reading of the text. It should be made more explicit.

this
is completely wrong

It says "at least one is heads", how is that ambiguous at all?

This

this is definitely not a "basic math question." It's basically a reformulation of a well-known paradox:

> Mr. Jones has two children. The older child is a girl. What is the probability that both children are girls?

> Mr. Smith has two children. At least one of them is a boy. What is the probability that both children are boys?

> Gardner initially gave the answers 1/2 and 1/3, respectively, but later acknowledged that the second question was ambiguous.[3] Its answer could be 1/2, depending on how you found out that one child was a boy. The ambiguity, depending on the exact wording and possible assumptions, was confirmed by Bar-Hillel and Falk,[4] and Nickerson.[5]

TL;DR being that OP's question is ambiguous, and the answer will depend on how the reader assumes they came about the knowledge that at least on of the coins lands on heads.

see: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

For the reasons I gave after my first sentence.

this

It only becomes ambiguous if you assume things that are not said, aka you're fucking retarded and are getting baited into the trick.

get lost bucko

A: *flips 2 coins but doesnt show you*
A: What are the chances both are heads?
B: Well tell me this first, is there at least one heads?
A: Yes, there is
B: ___________

How could you ever interpret the phrasing of "at least" as "the first one" is crazy unless you're ESL or something.

this is precisely backwards. The question itself is ambiguous, and it becomes non-ambiguous when you assume things that aren't said. And it is ambiguous in the first place because there is no way to read it as referencing particular states of affairs without assuming things which aren't said.

For example you can read it either as saying

> From all families with two children, at least one of whom is a boy, a family is chosen at random. This would yield the answer of 1/3.

or

> From all families with two children, one child is selected at random, and the sex of that child is specified to be a boy. This would yield an answer of 1/2.

In both cases you are assuming certain things to be true which the question doesn't acknowledge to be true.

give one reason as to why

Its 50% jesus christ you fucking tards
If one is heads anyway always, then the other coin is either heads or tails, meaning 50% HH or 50% not HH.

The first one is using the information given, the other is making an assumption about information not given.

this

One is not heads always, the image says "at least one is heads". That means you flip 2 coins, look down at both and determine at least one of them is heads. Either of the two can be heads, it doesn't matter, that's why it says "at least one", not "a specific one".

There is no such thing as a presuppositionless reading.

I really don't understand how you could ever misinterpret this. It even says "You flip two coins", not "You flip one coin and it's heads, then you flip another coin". You flip two, look down, at least one is heads. How is that at all ambiguous?

this

try finishing high school before posting here

it's 50% nigger

If you know by looking down, you know which one is heads. Which means it's 1/2 for the other one. If you somehow know that at least one is heads without knowing which one, it's 1/3. None of this is settled by the explicit text.

muh credence levels
get fucked Veeky Forums

1/2 cause of the gambler's fallacy

Being able to count and being able to put words together are two different skillsets. It's like asking a boxer to play soccer.

That being said you'd have to be pretty fucking dense not to be able to solve a grade school-level math exercise.

It must be 1 because heads is plural.

>HT, TH

These are the same thing thoughm so the answer is 1/2

1

>implying the coins ever landed

HT
TH
HH
HH
2/4 = 1/2

this. except heads-tails/tails-heads is the same thing so really it's 50%

It might be the same thing but that doesn't mean you can subtract one of them. It means tere's a 2/3 chance you'll get one heads and one tails.

That is retarded, TH and HT are the same. Technically they are not, but is the practical that matters, so the effect is 1/2.

Practically speaking, you have a greater chance to get heads/tails than heads/heads!

Probability is unreal.

It doesn't matter what the other coin toss was, it's still 50/50 for each coin on each individual toss.

It doesn't matter if you flipped 30 heads in a row, the next toss is still 50/50.

>(the question makes a requirement not a statement)

Not necessarily, it can be interpreted either way

its actually 120%, ie theres a negative 20% chance it isnt heads, nor tails, but somethin ELSE entirely. Thats science, and you can't argue with science

Well if at least one is heads then it means you're only testing the probability of ONE coin, the one that isn't automatically heads. So it's 50%.

Even if this were the case in the OP (it isn't) you'd still be mistaken: if you couldn't discern non-explicit, non-verbal communication, you'd be severely autistic or otherwise handicapped.

This logic doesn't work. Imagine you're due to hangout with friends and they decide if one of them can't make it the other one must arrive. Whats the chances they'll both arrive?

You can't just say Fred is definately going then flip a coin for Doug. They both have to flip which makes it 1/3

Your choices are:
T T
T H
H T
H H

Three of those have an H in them:
T H
H T
H H

One of those is the desired result (H H). The probability is 1/3.

Are you humanities fags actually this pathetic? A lot of people in this thread are just meming but idk if any of you genuinely understand common sense probability.

Niggas ITT trying to break it down into a philosophical question. This thread is ironically showing this place is full of posturing brainlets.

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Yet you're assuming the sex ratio is 50:50, really gets ya thinkin