>because the french wouldn't just dissarm their whole army unless the germans forced them by threat
You seem to be missing the part where we're starting with the assumption that the Schlieffen plan actually works and the war on the Western Front is effectively over. The Germans would be forcing them to, similar to what they did post Franco-Prussia 1871.
>.and that would require stationing a large forceat france to make sure they were obliging by the treaty
And going by historical precedent in WW2, that's probably going to be about 28% of their invasion force, and disproportionately less well trained and equipped forces to boot.
>And who is to say the war would have been smooth for the germans once france fell
Basic logic. They were kicking the crap out of Russia with a bit under a million men on the Eastern Front in 1915. If you win in the West, you can afford a much, much larger deployment than that, and will kick the crap out of the Russians even worse.
>All it would take is for the germans to bog down and some right winger to rise to power in france and they would have been at war again
So, first you need the Germans to bog down. Then you need a right winger to win the election on a war platform. Then he needs to secretely re-arm the country without the Germans noticing and doing something about it, and get back on to a war footing while over half the country's industry and some 1/3 of its population is denied to them because lol occupation. Then this fighting force needs to do better than the last one, because hey, remember, they got crushed, and do well enough to divert the Germans from shitstomping the Russians, who might or might not have also folded by this time.
This plan is incredibly stupid.
>and what i meant by the previous post is that they would have to fight the russians in eastprussia and sillesia.
You mean like they did historically in 1914? And then rolled the Russians back?