Why did the Nazis clothe, feed and house people in extermination camps...

Why did the Nazis clothe, feed and house people in extermination camps? Seems like a very inefficient way of going about it. Why not just fence off a piece of land and let them starve/die of exposure from not feeding/sheltering/clothing them? Was there a reason they could not?

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they made them do work

Not him, but so they were forced labor camps or extermination camps? Did you have an expiration date after which you can no longer do work and have to be exterminated? Why in the fuck did they have medical wards / hospitals in the camp if they just wanted to kill people?

Also, there already was basically forced labor in factories for POWs from Poland / USSR. Concentration camps weren't a part of it.

OP here.

I was under the impression that there were 2 major types of camp.

Concentration Camp (Forced Labour)
Extermination Camp (What is says on the tin)

It's odd how the red cross checked out all of the concentration camps and they were fine, and the ones that they happened to not check were death camps.

It's almost as if the people at the "death" camps were exaggerating or taking the piss.

/pol/ pls
You and I both know the Nazis were full on into ethnic genocide along with the Soviets and Japanese.

>Finally granted access to check one camp
>Germans turn it into a little village and have the prisoners film a movie about how great their lives are
>Red cross leaves and all prisoners sent to death camps
wew

I like how the current bolshevikipedia article literally claims in the lead that new arrivals were supposedly send off straight to le gas chambers after they got out of the train and onto the ramp

There's not even any sources to back it up lmao, doesn't help that all their admins are devout zionists also

Real cheap strawmen right there, move along nothing to see here folks

In reality the so called "Nazi death camps" were nothing more than internment labour camps for ALL sorts of internees (not just Jews), SOME of which ran out of food and suffered from outbreaks of typhus towards the end of the war due to heavy Allied bombing raids on German infrastructure. - There were no "gas chambers" and no "mass murderers" of Jews of any kind in these camps.

In The Ukraine alone approximately 11 million Ukrainians were systematically murdered and/or deliberately starved to death under the Judeo-Bolshevik government in Moscow, which practically reduced the whole of The Ukraine to a gigantic death camp for the millions of souls who perished there. Others were transported to Magadan in Eastern Siberia where horrific medical experiments were carried out on Ukrainian children as young as 3 without anaesthesia, while others still were deported to various parts of the Soviet Union to be used as slave labour.

In some areas of German Liberated Ukraine where there was a security crisis with Jewish and Communist partisans carrying out terrorist actions in unsecured pockets, the German liberation forces were forced into deputizing local anti-Communist paramilitaries and armed police, to counter the Red terrorist insurgency. This inevitably led to wholesale reprisals against Jewish communities on the part of the armed native population which the Germans ultimately had very little control over.

There is no substantial evidence whatsoever that any large volume of Jewish non-combatants were deliberately killed at the hands of Germans alone on the Eastern Front, or indeed anywhere else during World War II.

You have no clue what a strawman is. Before throwing around babby's first logical fallacy, please inform yourself on when it applies and how argumentation works.