Was there ever another Kingdom that was just the vasall of another Kingdom (Mallorca/Aragon)?

Was there ever another Kingdom that was just the vasall of another Kingdom (Mallorca/Aragon)?
Also pls recommend books about Aragon in the 14th century

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libro.uca.edu/
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"Les Quatre Grans Croniques" for some first hand info is pretty good, if biased as fuck. I don't know if it's translated in english tough.

>"Les Quatre Grans Croniques" for some first hand info is pretty good, if biased as fuck. I don't know if it's translated in english tough.
Which medieval chronic isn't biased.
Do you know if there's a translation to castilian spanish? reading catalan is pretty stressfull because I don't speak it

Scotland

Who and when?

What an awful map, the Giudicato of Arborea in Sardinia remained indipendent until 1410, he could've at least put some fucking effort before doing a map

A quick google I found this one.
books.google.es/books?id=2ATSAAAAMAAJ&printsec=frontcover&hl=ca#v=onepage&q&f=false

thank's alot
googled 10 minutes in german/spanish/english probably I'm just to stoned right now

It's a spanish map so the spaniards have to look big.
And really who cares about Sardinia, other than Sardinian and some autistic Veeky Forumstorians?
So which one are you?

A map is supposed to be accurate, that map is about Catalonia, the Balearic islands and Sardinia so it wouldn't have hurt to read about it a little before doing a map about it

Depending on how you define "kingdom", a good amount of precolumbian cultures in central and south america would probably qualify.

I'm not sure if that's useful.
Does in these relationship between liege and vasall both have the same title?
If not shouldn't we translate one with emperor/duke/count?
If yes does this title imply comparable rights and souverainity like King does in the western (europeen) culture area?

The kingdom of Granada was vassal to the kingdom of Castille.

Under which kings?

It started to be a vassal during Ferdinand the Saint reign.

When William the Bastard took England, it technically became a vassal too France b/c of the Duchy of Normandy.

If I'm not mistaken after 1066 the Kingdom of England was nominally a vassal of France.

The kings of england were just french vasall as owners of their french holdings (normandy, guyenne...), not because of the Kingdom of England

I know, but the king of England was also the duke of Normandy.

Yeah and in that function they were vasall of the french kings. But not as King of england. So if the french king made a tax the people in normandy had to pay while the ones in England hadn't.

try here, you might find something
libro.uca.edu/

Kings of Sicily were formally vassals of the Pope