>In 1948 when they decided to created the jewish state
Jewish people had always lived in the area and had long wanted a state. European Jewish settlements began in 1882. Zionists movements began in 1890's. The Balfour Declaration was 1917. 1947, the United Nations called for the partitioning of Palestine.
>Why was it considered imperative that there was a Jewish state on their historic homeland in 1948
British control of the ME began to collapse in the late 30's, as did the British Empire more generally. By 1940, the British were already trying to manage various nationalist movements from Arabs, Jews, and other regional minorities.
World War Two kicked off and the British were somewhat successful in tapping down anti-imperial sentiments to support the war effort.
After the war was over and the extent of the Nazis Holocaust had been discovered, the United States, which was effectively running Western Europe, began to move people who had no connections to Europe any longer- no citizenship, family, property, etc- to new parts of the world. The obvious place for the Jewish Europeans to go would be Palestine.
Add to that the relief and reparations money that began flowing in after the war, and 1948 is finally the point where everything came together after a 70 year project began.
>Why not an assyrian state on their historic homeland?
There was never a broad Assyrian nationalist movement? I don't know.
>Or a cossack state on their ancestral homeland?
There probably could have been one had the Soviet Union collapsed and the U.S. implemented an Eastern Marshal plan
>Or a basque state on their historic homeland?
Basques have a quasi state and have been fighting for independence for a long time. There isn't much justification in overthrowing the Spanish government now and there wasn't much appetite after WWII.
I know this post is just the bare minimum some /pol/erina could muster to stay on topic, but maybe someone reads this and learns something.