Why where the leaders of the communist uprising in Germany all Jewish...

wasn't this particular uprising the reason for Hitlers antisemitism?
The way I see it, Hitler was mostly anti bolshevist and because of the Spartacist uprising, he saw Jews as responsible for spreading bolshevism

Imagine you're a jew living in a country whose policies are aimed at limiting your freedom and whose populace hates your guts due to ancient anti-semitism
Now imagine a new culture comes up, of which one of the main tenets is "equality"

Soviets genocided pretty much everyone, including religious Jews

Can we stop with these threads? You make them like every goddamn hour. Find a new topic.

>Imagine you're a jew living in a country whose policies are aimed at limiting your freedom and whose populace hates your guts due to ancient anti-semitism

Except Kaiserreich Germany are Jewish sympathizer. Hell even Wilhelm II himself fund the fucking Communist Revolution in Russia and help sending Lenin back to Russia. And this.

hmm, did he do it because he was such a big communist?
Or maybe because it helped German war efforts against Russia?

>Jews only allowed in certain jobs
>great at being merchants due to wide spread families
>allowed to do usury as not Christian
>gain influence
>become middle class
>middle class always sees the Lower classes as innocent people
>communism is seen as a way of saving the lower class from the tyranny of the upper class
All it is is Jews got middleclass quicker so became communist quicker, look at white American college students nowadays for further proofs

>maybe because it helped German war efforts against Russia?
I admit that was his real intention. But that doesn't deny the fact that Imperial Germany were lenient to Jewish people and give them the same right as Christian German. In fact, lot of German Jews in USA supported Germany during WW1.

Liebknecht, Mehring, Pieck, Müller, Barth and Eichhorn weren't Jews.

but antisemitism was still very real in Germany at that time.
Thats why after WW1, the jews felt the need to remind the German public that also a lot of Jews died fighting for Germany in the world war

Antisemitism started after defeat of Germany in WW1 and intensifies during German Revolution. What I'm saying is that there were no significant antisemitism before WW1. Maybe there was a bit of racism but that is normal during that time.

>Treitschke was one of the few important public figures who supported antisemitic attacks which became prevalent from 1879 onwards. He accused German Jews of refusing to assimilate into German culture and society, and attacked the flow of Jewish immigrants from Russian Poland. Treitschke popularized the phrase "Die Juden sind unser Unglück!" ("The Jews are our misfortune!"), which was adopted as a motto by the Nazi publication Der Stürmer several decades later. He made several antisemitic remarks such as:
>The Jews at one time played a necessary role in German history, because of their ability in the management of money. But now that the Aryans have become accustomed to the idiosyncrasies of finance, the Jews are no longer necessary. The international Jew, hidden in tile mask of different nationalities, is a disintegrating influence; he can be of no further use to the world.[6]

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heinrich_von_Treitschke

they were blaming the German people for those 12000 deaths

>wasn't this particular uprising the reason for Hitlers antisemitism?

Do you really think antisemitism is rational?

I mean, go on youtube and search the following "New Years Resolutions for White Guys", and tell me whether or not that racist propaganda is rational.

That was basically equivalent of current /pol/ and Russian's Dugin. Maybe I'm a bit too much when I said that antisemitism was not exactly a thing before WW1. But I'm sure that the German Government do not endorse it.
>Assimilation
That was normal everywhere it the world. France did that. Spain did that. Even Britain did that.

This thread is full of really weird horse-before-cart thinking
Jewish propaganda is evidence of antisemitism?
Or is antisemitism a response to unremittant propaganda from jews?
Antisemitism is irrational because antiwhite propaganda is...?
Semites are the main source of antiwhite propaganda. I'm including arabs in semites.

Anti semitism had been a thing in german speaking states since the fucking crusades buddy. The legal equality that Napoleon had given them was destroyed the moment he was defeated in 1813. It took another 68 years before they regained these rights. There were anti jew riots in 1819, 1860 and later. The 1880 saw political parties such as the Anti semitic peoples party and the german social antisemitic party rise to 16 seats in the reichstag

Why do you lie?

During tried to rationalize antisemitism, but got BTFO by Engels

He wasn't arguing against assimilation

They weren't all Jewish.

The leadership was mostly Jewish because socialism is an ideology of liberation. People from marginalized backgrounds tend to be more interested in such ideals. In addition, most of the Jews in the Spartacus league were immigrants from Eastern Europe or the children of these immigrants. This meant they were marginalized twice over, and had little love for the Imperial German State.

For this same reason, you saw enormous support for the Russian Revolution in Latvia and the Caucasus. Cuba's revolution was supported mostly by the black and brown farmers in the eastern provinces.

Soviets in that instance means worker councils, not the USSR.

Religious people were never the victims of genocide in the Soviet state. Nobody was murdered for being Christian.

This is fiction. There was a tradition of anti-Semitism in Germany stemming centuries before the war, due to the important but marginal position Jews played in German society. In the 19th century, ethnic Jewish philosophers were convinced that either Jews had to leave Germany or lose their identity. Moses Hess, essentially the first Zionist, argued that another Exodus must be undertaken to escape mistreatment. Karl Marx, his rival, instead believed that any Jewish nationalism would incur more anti-Semitism, and that Jews must assimilate.

Nazi rhetoric that cast the blame for German problems on a secret cabal of Jews was nothing new. In the 1912 election, a plurality of voters in half a dozen electoral districts cast their ballots for political parties centered around anti-Semitism. This groups specifically desired the disenfranchisement and potential expulsion of Germany's Jewish minority.

en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_Reform_Party

>Nobody was murdered for being Christian.
lie

Neither was Liebknecht, literally the leader

It combines the two things /pol/ hates, Jews and organized labor

Find me anybody who was.

Because they got it from tje real nazis who saw it as a convenient way of blaming the Jews and communists for the loss rather than people getting tired of the war.

>In an earlier work from 1793 dealing with the ideals and politics of the French Revolution, Contributions to the Correction of the Public's Judgment concerning the French Revolution (Beiträge zur Berichtigung der Urteile des Publikums über die Französische Revolution\), he called Jews a "state within a state" that could "undermine" the German nation.[58] In regard to Jews getting "civil rights," he wrote that this would only be possible if one managed "to cut off all their heads in one night, and to set new ones on their shoulders, which should contain not a single Jewish idea."[58]
What did Johann Gottlieb Fichte mean by this?

St Bonifatius

The word "soviet" meant workers' councils in that context. The ruling Bolshevik party of the Soviet Union was separate.

Luxemburg and co were anti-Bolshevik.

books.google.hn/books?id=gC93bLKtMqMC&pg=PA154&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q&f=false

So basically, communism during its most brutal and bloodthirsty phase was a Jewish thing, but once it got rid of Jews, it became better and less murderous?

Pretty sure it's most "brutal and bloodthirsty" phase was under stalin.

its*

Stalin purged the Jews from 1936 to 1938. Before 1936 millions of goyim died under policies that were defended and enacted by Jews, like forced collectivization and dekulakization. After 1938, even as Stalin ruled, domestic oppression diminished greatly.

It's also curious how most (((anti-communists))) hate only this post-Great Purge style of mild, less murderous communism. Neocons, progressives, liberals, they hate late Stalin and his nationalist, non-Jewish government. They cry a lot about how the Great Purge was a great crime against humanity. But I've never seen a single (((anti-communist))) of this kind denounce the collectivization of agriculture or the persecution of kulaks.

How was it enacted by jews exactly? Stalin got to power by allying himself with the right-wing communists that defended the NEP (including the jews), not by defending collectivization, which he latter decided to adopt. Not to mention the rest of the politburo didn't have any power by mid 1930s. The "jew" that wanted collectivization was trotsky.

>They cry a lot about how the Great Purge was a great crime against humanity. But I've never seen a single (((anti-communist))) of this kind denounce the collectivization of agriculture or the persecution of kulaks.
Everyone denounces both, don't be retarded.

>nobody has ever denounced the Holodmor

Is this a bait post, or are you genuinely that sheltered?

We're talking about the Soviet Union, dumb shit

Philosophical question: given the fact that Jews were so tightly coupled and predisposed to communism and Bolshevism, did Hitler and the Nazis have logical grounds to go after them as part of their pursuit of a cohesive, fascist state?

People never really talk about the motivation behind it, just the morality. Morality is pretty fickle.

Quite the opposite, Soviet governance was much more libertarian and ethical before Stalin's takeover in 1927

>. What I'm saying is that there were no significant antisemitism before WW1
What school did you go to

>Stalin purged the Jews from 1936 to 1938
t. Nigger fanfiction

Jews stopped having a presence in communism after 1929, it's not some mystery

>Philosophical question: given the fact that Jews were so tightly coupled and predisposed to communism and Bolshevism
German communists were not bolsheviks.

>did Hitler and the Nazis have logical grounds to go after them as part of their pursuit of a cohesive, fascist state
1/3 to half of germany was voting socialists/communists up to hitler's ascension. If killing every communist/socialist around was necessary for a cohesive fascist state he would have had to kill a shit ton of germans.

You're retarded. Stalin was the primary force demanding brutal treatment of suspected kulaks. Dekulakization, along with the rest of the first Five Year Plan, affected Jews as well as non-Jews. Stalin had begun deliberately reducing Jewish influence in the USSR in the late 20s, before these policies were enacted.

The only Jewish officials involved in the Five Year Plan were Kaganovich (a toady who followed Stalin lockstep ) and Yagoda (a literary who opportunist who Stalin bumped off).

For one, Kulaks did something evil. Their punishment was overly harsh, and I'm sure many people were wrongfully convicted, but hoarding grain in times of famine is wrong and had to be stopped.

Being killed or imprisoned for speaking out against your government is completely inconsolable.

Hitler did kill a shit ton of Germans, also any political opponents and anyone he saw as a threat in his own party

Shit got kinda weird, Hitler didn't overtly hate Gays but when he found out one of his comrades was sleeping with a dude he flipped the fuck out and personally saw his execution

>Hitler did kill a shit ton of Germans, also any political opponents and anyone he saw as a threat in his own party
Sure, but nothing compared to the amount who had supported socialists or communists. Even in 1932 they had received more than 13 million votes.

obviously, cutting off heads was meant in a metaphorical sense.
He didn't actually want to physically eliminate Jews, like nazis did.

but was Hitler aware of that?