Why were Jews so well represented in Italian Fascist's, in all Russian revolutionary groups in the 19th century...

Why were Jews so well represented in Italian Fascist's, in all Russian revolutionary groups in the 19th century, in Socialist Revolutionaries (the group responsible for the most terrorist attacks, Social-Democrats closely following), in Russian Social-Democrats (later on bolsheviks too obviously) and all other revolutionary parties still present in 1905 or 1917 revolutions (and Bolshevik coup), in Cheka-GP and all following Soviet security forces, in post-WW2 Polish communist puppet regime and it's security organ's, quite literally everywhere where the destruction of the old was the object and were violence was not deemed an obstacle worth considering and in where any human sacrifice (of the 'old race') was acceptable?

Hell, if National Socialists would have not taken 'antisemitic' stance, Jew's probably would have joined and actively worked with them too (and some Zionists indeed did work with NS's, but were of course not members of the party or any organization).

Is 'antisemitism' of the 'old regime's' really the only reason? Why did - for example - Polish Jews actively work with invading forces during the Third Partition of Poland, when the invading forces were just as 'antisemitic' as Poles?

Picture related: the one party (and indeed GDR in general) were Jews did not have massive overrepresentation.

>Why were Jews so well represented in Italian Fascist's, in all Russian revolutionary groups in the 19th century, in Socialist Revolutionaries (the group responsible for the most terrorist attacks, Social-Democrats closely following), in Russian Social-Democrats (later on bolsheviks too obviously) and all other revolutionary parties still present in 1905 or 1917 revolutions (and Bolshevik coup), in Cheka-GP and all following Soviet security forces, in post-WW2 Polish communist puppet regime and it's security organ's, quite literally everywhere where the destruction of the old was the object and were violence was not deemed an obstacle worth considering and in where any human sacrifice (of the 'old race') was acceptable?
Your question is based on a false premise. They weren't overrepresented.

'judeo-bolshevism' is a meme

The Jews are the human player everyone else is an NPC.

Making max 2% of population and having 30% representation in organization is not overrepresentation?

There is no reason to use 'judeo-bolsevism', because Jews were highly represented in pretty much every 19th and early 20th century Russian revolutionary parties or groups, not just Social-Democrats.
And indeed in Mussolini's Fascist's too (but not as highly as in Russian groups and Soviet imposed organizations).

Jewish representation in Soviet imposed communist organizations started to fall fast when Soviet and Eastern-European Jews started to move to Israel.

>Russian reactionaries
>Jewish
Best be trolling Moishe

Start marrying Croatian Jews.

No academic historian denies the overrepresentation, but hardly anyone gives any other reason than antisemitism and that simply doesn't explain anything.
Benjamin Pinkus (Israeli Jew) gives these figure's in his 'The Jews of the Soviet Union', but does not explain why Jew would want to be good fellow of Cheka, hunger-genociding more Ukrainians than Nazi's killed Jews.
Richard Pipes also clearly shows Jewish participation in the Revolution and Bolshevik coup in his 'The Russian Revolution' and 'Russia under Bolshevik Regime' works, but does not explain why.
Solzenitshyn tries to in his 'Two hundred years together', but ultimately fails, probably because he didn't want to be seen too 'antisemitistic'.

Historians always find reasons for why some other nationality (who is not majority in the country in question) is highly represented in some terrible political organization, but not for Jews. Why is that?

>Jewish representation in Soviet imposed communist organizations started to fall fast when Soviet and Eastern-European Jews started to move to Israel.
Started to fall, but slowly. Andropov was Jew.

>Why did - for example - Polish Jews actively work with invading forces during the Third Partition of Poland, when the invading forces were just as 'antisemitic' as Poles?

Wut? In the P-L Commonwealth there really was no significant anti-semitism. The Jews had rights that even the nobility didn't hold (like brewing several kinds of alcohol), were generally held as a separate estate from nobility/priests/peasants-burghers. During the Frankist movement whole bunch of Jews converted to Christianity in 1760s and were adopted into leading Polish noble families - Polish national poet Mickiewicz's mother was descended from Jewish converts.

>Andropov was Jew.
false