Why do so many of Shakespeare's plays take place in the Italian Peninsula?

Were all common folklore.

You wouldn't write a play today and rip off something like grease or the wizard of oz if you were suppose to be performing for the President of the U.S would you?

No you'd want to make something original, yet relatable.

none of Shakespeare's plays were original, they were all based on history, folk stories, or earlier plays

Got me there.

I tried to make my statement bleak enough to the general population. But when i said common folklore I meant as in these were common stories told in England. Though literacy was increasing at the time as stated it was just exotic enough to be considered original to the area.

Unless I'm incorrect. But what I know is that the Royal Court was highly intrigued by Shakespears work and regarded him as a elegant highlight of the kingdom during England's Renaissance. I also know the man to be original in his style of writing. Comedy was often a proceeding factor to what ever content might have been unoriginal to make it his own original version. People who study his original works have only really started to analyze and actually refer back to the scripts to see a lot more witt and satire surface towards common "celebrities" at the time.

Not sure if you're aware of what I'm speaking of, only reason I know is that I saw an exhibit last year in London while I was on tour. Other than that I know little on the man.

Heh

By basing it where no one had been or seen made it easier for him to make up customs, places etc without confusing people. Imagine how confusing it would be to modern audience if you set a movie in new York and only had Asians, actually filmed it in Miami and showed the "empire state" that was actually some other random building

No, that's France

*shakespur Tudor propaganda

It used to be widely considered the spiritual and intellectual center of Europe. A lot of Europeans consider the region to be a kind of ancestral homeland for some reason. Ancient Rome, the Vatican, Renaissance, etc. all were there. Long history to pull from, emotional feuds between families. Same thing in The Godfather, it's just a great setting for high drama.

Because he was writing during the Renaissance.

Who is that I keep seeing him here , did he got killed by polearm or what ?

>no Shakespeare play about Henry VIII

Is this a typo or are you actually retarded?

>tfw no Shakespeare play about Henry VIII

Literally King Henry VIII. It was in va performance of this play that the Globe caught fire and burned down

>>tfw no Shakespeare play about Richard and John a la The Lion In Winter

Nothing like Lion in Winter, but there is King John, which is one of the weirder histories, next to the Henry VI trilogy.

Most of them don't actually take place on the peninsula, but in the northern city states like Venice, Milan, and Verona. As to why choose this setting so frequently, I think it changes depending on the necessities of the plot particular to a play. In All's Well That Ends Well, the Italian Wars are basically an excuse for several of the characters to flee the court of France, enriching themselves in the process. In Merchant of Venice, the city itself is a synecdoche for commercial activity, which would have been immediately recognizable to a popular audience, regardless of all the money talk in the play. (It's also a place where Jews actually loved, unlike Elizabethan England).

>Venice, Milan, and Verona
I'd consider these to be on the Italian penesula.

>>tfw no Shakespeare play about Henry VIII

But they aren't, they're in northern Italy.

That´s the last duke of Burgundy, Charles the Bold. He got killed in a battle against the Swiss at Nancy, and the Swiss famously used the Halberd a whole lot.

We have no proof that he actually got killed by a halberd. It could have been a halberd though.

Because most of the material Shakespeare was stealing from was Italian.

Because shakespeare didnt write his plays

We'll it's still "Italy."

who is this spicy meatball?