Why did Europeans never develop written language?

Minoans had one but it was lost.

>What do you think English is?
>What do you think Latin is?

Languages that trace their lineage outside Europe.

He means why Europe never developed a unique written language, rather than adapt one from what is now the Middle East. The answer is the Europe was a "late developer" that benefited from technological advances in Asia and North Africa, just as Asia and Africa would later benefit from technological advances from Europe thousands of years later.

Wrong.

wrong

>Minoans had one

Not a true language representing words and arbitrary ideas, just an accounting system.

>Reading science fiction novels and thinking they are correct

m8 come back to reality.

Completely wrong.

Latin was ultimately derived from Phoenician.

Not the language. Perhaps the alphabet.

More importantly, the Greek alphabet is a unique creation.

>B-but Phoenician
Is an Abjad. Greek is an alphabet, and the first one. It is a unique creation, not a copy or a ripoff.

And Linear A and B, OP.

Not sure if it counts.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ogham

>Perhaps the alphabet.

So the written part...

Ya that's not good that works, using an alphabet from a different culture is not the same as written language.

If I make up a language out if thin air but use the English alphabet, I still created my own written language.

You seem to have some trouble with written language yourself.

If you used an alphabet from a different culture, obviously you didn't develop writing on your own.

You forgot Indus civilization you pathetic retard

But the Greeks were Europeans

Greek is from Phoenician as well.

Who?

That's flat-out untrue. Several culture groups/civilizations developed writing systems unrelated to the ones you're alluding to; a couple of the more well-known ones have been named already. Of course, there's no way to PROVE they weren't inspired or influenced by the four you're referencing, but there's no evidence that they were.

your a dorable

Polynesians invented Rongorongo but otherwise correct.

*you're

Which ones?

Honey, if you can't even spell "You're adorable.", then no one is going to believe you are an etymology expert on a Mongolian knitting board.

It is a language, and to be fair mycenean was already being influenced by other languages so it's not 100% pure european. It's linear A which is much older and minoan, but it's still undecypherable as of today.

hol up

People actually think diffrent written languages can't use the same characters while still being separate? Do these retards think Pinyin is English?

Unless I have misunderstood OP's question is whether Europe ever developed an entirely non-derivative written language, it would be a very strange coincidence if the same characters were being used in two written languages that didn't share, at some point, the same foundation.

>stole
wew

>wew

Wew.

In truth practically no one has invented their own written language. Most folks follow a chain back to one of a hand-full of examples. English for example took its from Latin who took its from Etruscan who took theirs from Greek who took theirs from the Phoenicians. A similar chain exists for just about every writing system on the planet. Pretty much only the Sumerians, the Chinese, the Egyptians, and the Meso-Americans ever came up with writing from scratch.

Are you retarded?

Linear A conveyed a written laguage, it was a syllabary just like Linear B, only it was not deciphred, they also had hieroglyphs.

This, but the Indus valley script might also be an example of independent evolution.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tartessian_language#Writing

>might

Is certainly is writing.

Rongo rongo and Neolithic Eastern Europe tablets might also be a form of writing.

Derived clearly from Phoenician like the other Iberian Alphabet

This. Some of the writing chains are truly epic, too.

>yfw Mongolian script is ultimately derived from Phoencian

Pheonician influence

Phoenician letters were also derived from Egyptian which were derived from Sumerian.

"No", Linear B isn't even an alphabet and it predates Phoenician by almost 500 years

Herod considers it part of Europe.

So the Indians and the Chinese are semitic?

Well this isn't about writing is it? It's about a written language.

You mean Herodotus?

He wasn't even aware of its existence

How do we know Europeans didn't develop written language before switching to Phoenician characters?

Greeks did but forgot how to, some Europeans had a ponderal System (Sicels and Sardinians) in The bronze age

like ummmm try again sweetie.

so the language we are using right now to communicate through writing is not a european language?

The greeks and minoans had a writing system before the classical greek alphabet was adopted

Minoa was a pre-Indo-European Near Eastern civilization

how about you make your mind up on what "europe" is before you make your moronic thread asking your moronic question then?

Myceneans were indieuripean, Minoans were proto Europeans

Derived from Phoenician

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Younger_Futhark

Besides, which those are from the Medieval time period, what on Earth possessed you to even post them as some kind of 'point'?

So what? They still developed it, regardless of where it derived from.

Well no, they didn't.

Obviously that's not the point of the thread. There are multiple written European languages today and Latin far predates those Norse runes so clearly no one would ask whether Europeans obtained written language at some point. The point is whether Europeans ever developed written language from scratch for themselves rather than it being derivative.

The OP's question still stands.

Absolutely. Praise YHWH nigga.

Linear A was developed indipendently.

there have only been two or three independent inventions of writing in history.
1. Mesoamerica
2. Mesopotamia (relationship between hieroglyphs and cuneiform unclear)
3. Ancient China (disputed)

t. linguistics student who is currently writing a paper about this

False.
0???Neolithic Balkans
1)Mesopotamia
2)Egypt
3)Indus valley civilization
4)Minoan Crete
5)China
6)Central America
7??? Rongo rongo in Easter island

there were no big enough civilizations there and climate was shit back then

Not sure if this is one too. It's from Colombia.

>3. Ancient China (disputed)
Is there any connection between the Anau seal and Oracle bones or is this Eurocentric revisionism?

sino-platonic.org/complete/spp124_anau_niya_seals.pdf

>Neoithic Balkans
source? couldn't find anything

>1,2,&3
inspired from the same origin

>4
you're thinking of the first alphabet, not writing system

>5&6
that's what i said...

>7
almost certainly inspired by writing of european explorers

You're a complete ignoramus sorry but thats to much for me, lurk more faggot

because they didn't need to
they preferred to remember anything as opposed to dulling their brain with writing
european tradition has been passed through the generations orally and with poems

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vinča_symbols

>writing is for faggots
>viking pride hurr durr
Kill yourself Crishnack.

this script was, at best, a proto-writing: it is not certain whether it encodes language.

we have to remember that it is possible to make marks which carry meaning, but do not constitute a writing system, in that they do not systematically and comprehensively transcribe speech.

Consider how a bear scratches a tree to mark its territory, or the many paintings left on cave walls by neolithic man.

In contrast, pic related (Akkadian cuneiform)

Notice how now one has replied to your post?
That's because it does count. That answers OPs bait question with a resounding "they did".

It honestly blows my mind that there was a time when writing didn't exist. It feels as normal to me as speaking and breathing, yet for thousands of years no human on earth had read or written anything. And the sort of bronze age geniuses who perfected the concept, forever lost to history.

Because it was easier to simply adopt existing written alphabets. The Near East spent endless autism points to achieve this in the first place, and look where they have ended up now.

It is now, moron. They're european genetically speaking as well.

They did they probably just replaced it with a more efficient language than whatever they came up with.

...

>inspired from the same origin

Absolutely false, Egyptian hieroglyphs, Sumerian cuneiform and Indus valley script are completely different and developed indipendently from one another

>you're thinking of the first alphabet, not writing system

At least use wikipedia, Linear A isn't an alphabet, but a syllabic/ideographic script

>inspired by europeans eplorers

False, the earliest tablets have been carbon dated to 1200-1300 AD, so long before the first explorers arrived in the island, though I put the question marks because it's not sure whether it conveyed a langauge or was just a proto writing system

"You don't write something down to remember, but so you don't need to."
-Some irrelevant Mayan
Cultures viewed it as a weakening of the mind.

No, it's because the Chinese also received the Word of God.

Pic related.

This is the kind of people Academia is receiving nowadays.

Is this a joke? Writing was used far more than just record keeping.

dumb whitey can't do shit without relying on superior PoC

This thread gave me cancer. Some people on here can't even tell the difference between languages and scripts.

The Cypriot syllabary which seems to descend from that family of scripts continued to be used to write Greek.

Not an argument.

What he said isn't untrue though, some ancient cultures did often look down on writing viewing it as an inferior substitute to memorization.

Doesn't make it true though. Plato was retarded in thinking writing harms the mind.

Greek but also Eteocypriot

No, but this is

>eurocucks still didn't develop any language
How am I not surprised?

Linear A was developed by Europeans