Why were only black people enslaved?

>Then why do they dominate in athletic sports and spaniards replaced native slaves with blacks?
1) Blacks weren't susceptible to old world diseases.
2) The Spaniards want to have improved relations with their colonial subjects.
3) Spanish clerics are disgusted by how Spanish overseers treated natives. Who by this point, were also Catholic subjects.
4) They were available. It wasn't whites hunting slaves in Africa, it was African states and tribes selling war captives to the Euros for mad dosh. Plenty of wars down there, and plenty of slaves were available for Spics.

she a qt

wud COLONIZE/10

It wasn't only black people.

As for the Atlantic slave trade, its because they were relatively cheap to transport to America and weren't dropping like flies from disease like native american and European workers were in those conditions. They already had a decent immunity to shit like malaria and smallpox. The racialized stuff developed after the economic incentive was already there.

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in California whites enslaved Native Americans

in the "Act for the Government and Protection of Indians" it said
>"Any person could go before a Justice of Peace to obtain Indian children for indenture. The Justice determined whether or not compulsory means were used to obtain the child. If the Justice was satisfied that no coercion occurred, the person obtain a certificate that authorized him to have the care, custody, control and earnings of an Indian until their age of majority (for males, eighteen years, for females, fifteen years)."In actual practice this section lead to a trade system of kidnapped Indian children, either stolen from their parents or taken from the results of militia attacks during the 1850s and 1860s. Frontier whites often eagerly paid $50–$100 for Indian children to apprentice and so groups of kidnappers would often raid isolated Indian villages, snatching up children in the chaos of battle."
>“If a convicted Indian was punished by paying a fine, any white person, with the consent of the Justice, could give bond for the Indian’s fine and costs. In return, the Indian was “compelled to work until his fine was discharged or cancelled.” The person bailing was supposed to “treat the Indian humanely, and clothe and feed him properly.” The Court decided “the allowance given for such labor.” Local authorities were often required to hire out the “convicts” within the next 24 hours to the highest bidder essentially creating a system of selling slaves out of jail."

shit was crazy

>Slav literally means slave, dude

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The fuck are you on about? There've been slaves of every ethnicity and race there is!

faculty.gordonstate.edu/lsanders-senu/Morgan American Slavery American Freedom.pdf

In the American colonies, it was done as a measure to keep poor indentured whites and african slaves from forming a united front against the landed planters. After Bacon's rebellion, the use of white indentured servants was largely discontinued. The poor whites relocated to Appalachia, and their descendants can be found in the Hollers of W. Virginia today.

No, that's nonsense. Slave coming from the Greek rendition of the Slavic ethnic name, Sklavos, is the most accepted etymology for good reason.

Arabic "saqlabi" (also from Greek Sklavoi) also could denote slaves more generally than specifically Slavic slaves.

But of course "Slav" itself doesn't mean "slave" but "person who can speak (intelligibly)" as your chart shows.

To add to (1), sub-Saharans also had high resistance to all sorts of diseases like malaria that even Europeans didn't.

>The people most enslaved have always been negroes

That's wrong though. I doubt they're even in the majority, given that the overwhelming majority of the Russian population were slaves under a different name until the 1860's and even afterwards, you can make a pretty good argument that the majority of the Soviet economy until Stalin's death was built on slave labour.

White could pick cotton but the UV rays from the sun at the tropical latitude caused too much sunburn for worthwhile white slaves so they resorted to niggers after the native americans proved too intelligent and rebellious to be slaves.

The Portuguese began trading Japanese slaves in the early 16th century to Macau, Europe and even to Mexico.

>the native americans proved too intelligent and rebellious

For the Americas, USA was never the plurality of slavers, blacks had a robust heredity to malaria,etc. which made other breeds unviable.