While Aryan Invasion/Migration is often discussed why isn't the theory that Eurasia was populated via India...

Indian tribal populations and south Indian populations carry high frequencies of R1a. If R1a is the basis for AIT then both those groups are as "Aryan" as any other Indian population.

And again, given geography and out of africa theory, it's much more likely that Australoids are Indian than the opposite.

>the intolerance among Indian populations doesn't have the same harsh symptoms

[citation needed]

Either way it's irrelevant because West Africans who never had any ancestry from I-E peoples have lactase persistence too.

>given geography and out of africa theory, it's much more likely that Australoids are Indian than the opposite.
Well there is a lot of chunk of land that go underwater and where dark Indians/Abbo civ could exist.
>Indian tribal populations and south Indian populations carry high frequencies of R1a
Do you have any source? I was sure that northerners carry R1 not south

Out of India is dead, get over it Poojet. Ukraine was their homeland, you just got raped by Eastern Euros.

Well obviously there is a gradient from northwest to southeast but there's nothing to suggest that there was a caste imposition of invaders from the NW.

The high prevalence of R1a among the Chenchu tribe 27% (ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12536373) and Medar tribe 40% in south India (ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3135801/) and the low prevalence among say, the Balmiki tribe of NW Punjab 30% (ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2987245/)

The Andh tribe from southwest India carries 31% while the Kalash from Pakistan carry 18%. Hindus from Chitwan in Nepal carry 70% R1a.

The entire thing seems spread out randomly with pockets of high and low R1a across the country. While in general the northwest has more than any other part, there are pockets of low incidence in NW india and pakistan and pockets of high incidence in southern india which do no relate to caste but rather isolated tribes.

This is not to speak about where r1a originated. Might well have been the Baltics. But there is no genetic proof of a genetic invasion and subjugation by R1a of India.

>But there is no genetic proof of a genetic invasion
But there is

eurogenes.blogspot.com/2017/06/ancient-herders-from-pontic-caspian.html

>eurogenes.blogspot
great source. and there's a better rebuttal than i care to put forward in the text itself which the author dismisses as not having a "a single coherent argument"
an even better rebuttal is from the same paper that the blog cites as proof of his pov.
thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-problematics-of-genetics-and-the-aryan-issue/article19165320.ece

Regardless, no one is arguing about the migration into India. It is bound to have happened. This is about a territorial and cultural conquest of India of which there is no proof at all.

Muller didnt do any of the things though, you are talking about someone else. Muller was one of first indiaboos, he even despised christianity. He was saddened by the fact that his works were being used to push the european aryan agenda.

indo-european languages are derived from greek or latin + indigenous pre-indoeuropean languages. Any other theory is LARPing neckbeard bullshit

>from greek or latin
Greek language was very late to the party.

>territorial and cultural conquest
what else would you call it if the local populations adopted indo-european culture and language and gave the invaders their women

It wouldn't ducking matter if there was no military conquest. You have outsiders breeding with the women and the adoption of a language whose evolution began in am entirely foreign land. That's cultural domination.

Why do Pajeet subhumans want to make India their safespace?

>cultural conquest
The only ways there wouldn't be cultural conquest are that either PIE originated in india or that the languages in northern India have no linguistic ancestor with foreign languages.

WE WUZ INDIA N SHIT, WE WUZ TRUE ARYANS, EUROS STOLE OUR TECHNOLOGY AND FLEW ON YOUR WEEMANS BACK TO YUROP.

Then explain Pajeets why this man doesn't look like you ball-shaped Dravidian sc*m?

>and gave the invaders their women
Technically speaking, everybody was allowed to marry each other until it was officially banned a millennia later.

But just so happens that Dravidian women loved to jump on aR1an cock in result there is a lot of R1a "Indians" that look nowhere near as their ancient ancestors did.

Ancient Greek is older then sanskirit

But there is no European mtDNA in India and the highest castes are almost exclusively European in terms of Y-DNA

Compels you to ponder

There was social classes but it wasn't enforced on keeping genetic 'purity'. Classes were determined by the work you chose to support your family and wasn't determined by birth.

But this changed over time when Brahmins consolidated more power by converting the varna system into the modern day caste system.

> there is a lot of R1a "Indians" that look nowhere near as their ancient ancestors
Neither do Brahmins.

>There was social classes but it wasn't enforced on keeping genetic 'purity'.
Nobody said so, but the Indo-Europeans clearly dominated the locals

Out of India is dead. PIE were Nordics who conquered and cucked swarthy races like dravidians and that is a fact.

>wasn't determined by birth.
Yeah, pure coincidence that the highest castes just happen to have primarily Indo-European Y-DNA

The Homeric epics and ancient greek mythology doesn't describe that supposed migration either. There was Herodotus that said that there lived the Pelasgians who were autochthonous, that is "native" to Greece, but the Greeks never knew their precise origins, and Thucydides tells us that everyone before the legendary Mycenaean civilization was a barbarian.

everyone was a barbarian*

They were most likely native to Anatolia/n.Iran, the people who we call "Nordics-Scandinavians" today are descended from west-eurasian hunters, and are more closely related to Siberians than the Indo-Europeans

No. PIE were bold and blue eyed "Nordics" from Russia, and they subjagated dravidians. R1a-Z93 originated in Eastern Europe.

>bold
*blond, fucking new cellphone

livescience.com/38751-genetic-study-reveals-caste-system-origins.html
>Though relationships between people of different social groups was once common, there was a "transformation where most groups now practice endogamy," or marry within their group, said study co-author Priya Moorjani, a geneticist at Harvard University.
>Combining this new genetic information with ancient texts, the results suggest that while class distinctions emerged 3,000 to 3,500 years ago, caste divisions became strict roughly two millennia ago
>Early on, there were distinct classes of people — the priests, the nobility and the common people — but no mention of segregation or occupational restrictions. By about 3,000 years ago, the texts mention a fourth, lowest class: the Sudras. But it wasn't until about 100 B.C. that a holy text called the Manusmruti explicitly forbade intermarriage across castes

I never said there weren't social classes.

WE

>native to Anatolia/n.Iran
Nope
>more closely related to Siberians
Not any more so than ancient IE

Whatever helps you sleep at night Ivan.

That's outdated honey

The haplotype distribution rate does not support you larp theory at all, look at Russia, and then look at Anatolia and n.Iran for the Y-dna distribution.

>R1b
Iranics were R1a.

even better, but worse for you

But it does, since 99% of modern R1a is descended from Indo-European R1a1a1 which originated in Ukraine and is only 5000 years old

>But even the linguistic proof depends on the supposition of a PIE language
No. The PIE is based on, and has been reconstructed through, easily recognizable similarities between many different languages. And no, Sanskrit is not PIE.

What that means in practice is that the high caste patriarchal Indo-European males sometimes took wives from other castes, not that low caste males could marry into the higher castes.

actually it is your map which is outdated, look at highest frequency, and migration route.

It all points to Caucasus/inner Anatolia/N.Iran. The high frequency in the Caspian steppe can be explained due to these lands being empty when the Indo-Europeans migrated there.

No.
Everybody was free to marry anyone, the father of the daughter would invite all eligible bachelors he likes to a Swamyara where the daughter was free to choose her to be groom among them.

Brahmins could marry Shudras, Shudras could marry Brahmins.

The origin point of basal R1a is irrelevant either way, see

>Everybody was free to marry anyone
But genetic evidence attests to the contrary.

This is a later practise in the Vedic era.

There's a several centuries gap between when this is first reported (Ramayana and Mahabharata) and when the IE came.

There is no definitive proof for the ukrainian origin point, provide me an academic source for that and then we will see.

>outdated
>cites studies from 2010
kek
>The high frequency in the Caspian steppe can be explained due to these lands being empty when the Indo-Europeans migrated there.
No it can't you retard, Eastern Europe and Ukrainian steppe has the highest diversity in R1a clades and also the oldest ones because it originated there, meanwhile Asian R1a is almost exclusively R1a-Z93

eurogenes.blogspot.com.au/2017/09/the-beast-among-y-haplogroups.html

eurogenes.blogspot.com.au/2017/05/late-pie-ground-zero-now-obvious.html

eurogenes.blogspot.com.au/2015/02/eastern-europe-as-bifurcation-hotspot.html

eurogenes.blogspot.com.au/2017/09/the-genomic-history-of-southeastern.html

Check the second link from above

>Eugene Blogspot

Here you go again retard. Not a source.

Check the studies he cited, retard

>literal pile of sources used listed down below
>not a source
?

Linguistics isn't science. PIE and Indo-European invasions / migrations is just speculation and mental masturbation.

German is based on latin and the indigenous pre-Indo-European languages of Germania, and possibly Illyrian. Celtic languages are based on Greek (its known that the druids wrote and spoke in greek and they were the learned class) and latin.

Sanskirit and Persian could be based on Greek too, or they could have a common ancestor originating in central asia. But it seems likely that sanskirit is based on Greek because the Brahmins were the learned caste and they probably learnt Greek, the language of enlightenment and science.

The current mainstream theories about Indo-European languages, AI, PIE are all based in colonialism, racism and imperialism of the 18th, 19th and 20th century. All of it was associated with occult and pseudo-scientific whackjobery like atlantis

>Present-day population name and place
>Paris
>Inhabited by North West Europeans

Dumb as fuck, i hope the one who did this map die from cancer

Ancient Greek is very conservative and retained a lot of IE roots lost in other languages.

>Greek, the language of enlightenment and science.

Lol

Brainlet: the post.

>wasting time on pseudo-science and and elaborate speculation and mental masturbation instead of using occams razor

This is the most retarded post on Veeky Forums right now.

nearly all of those name places are ancient including paris. Paris is literally in north-western Europe

show me a single argument against anything in that post

hard mode: use science

>Ancient Greek is very conservative
Ancient Greek was no more conservative than any other branches of IE languages. You might make the case that one branch was more phonetically conservative or some such, but we'd also see then that other branches were far more conservative in grammar, for example.

SHIT MAP
H
I
T

M
A
P

British should be renamed as Northwestern European
North Russian should be renamed as Northeastern European
Basque should be renamed as Southwestern European
Toscan should be renamed as Southcentral European
Romanian should be renamed as Southeastern European

Britain / Briton is an ancient name. Basques are ancient as fuck. The north-west European ancestry label for paris is questionable, the celt originated on the continent and not vice versa

>Physics isn't science. Gravity and the Moon obiting the Earth/Earth orbiting the Sun is just speculation and mental masturbation.
That is literally the post you're trying to bait people into arguing over.

Yes PIE is based on the commonality between geographically disparate languages. It's a language the historians and linguists believe to be the root of Sanskrit, Latin etc. But we don't have any actual proof of a PIE spoken by any people at all. And we certainly don't have any proof that PIE is central asian in origin.

Obviously Sanskrit isn't PIE but there's no reason that the theoretical language could be Indian in origin. I'm not saying this is the case but there's about as much proof for this than any other place of origin.

>You have outsiders breeding with the women
Sure, it would be more surprising if that wasn't the case.
>and the adoption of a language whose evolution began in am entirely foreign land.
And here we go into the territory of fiction. Where's a proof that a foreign language evolved in a foreign land was adopted in India.

And even if we consider that to be true, as flimsy as the grounds are, could it not just be that the inherent superiority of language rather than the people that made it spread? After all the entire world uses a number system that originated in India. Does that mean that the entire world is culturally dominated by India?

Great, so since the oldest R1a-Z93 has been found in a cold, sparsely populated part of Russia instead of the tropical land where cremation is the death ritual, that puts the entire matter to rest and beyond doubt.

Yeah, it was Ancient Pajeets teaching Slavshits, Iranics and Baltshits their amazing Satem language.

No, you illiterate idiot. Languages (especially nouns) can spread without people physically going and teaching them. That's why the English words candy and sugar can both be traced back to India, not because an Indian went there and taught Germanics these words but because sugarcane is Indian. Language spread is memetic not genetic.

You're literally shitting on the entire research made by people that are more qualified than you.

I know it's hard for street-shitters to accept that their precious India was raped by Europeans, but damn. That's another level of denial.

lol, you're still basing you insults on "science" from the 19th century which has been totally debunked by the same authority that you're appealing to

There is NO evidence of invasion, there is NO evidence of displacement of natives, there is no evidence of a PIE that originated outside India (or for that matter a PIE language that originated in India), there is no evidence that these Aryans from outside India settled here and established a caste system.

Basing your entire belief system on incomplete genetic data and theories that have the distinguished privilege of having the "Aryans" originate in the north pole in their history, might not be the only option.

This is officially the dumbest thing ever said

>we don't have any actual proof of a PIE spoken by any people
I don't get what you're trying to say. Are you seriously trying that claim that you've discovered that we have no written records od a language that was never written down? If so, congratulations on discovering something everyone else already knew?

>And we certainly don't have any proof that PIE is central asian in origin.
Yes we do. When we compare the geographical distribution of sound changes in the daughter languages we get a clear indication that the parent language was originally spoken on the Central Asian steppe.

>we have no written records od a language that was never written down
Yes, glad you agree.

> we get a clear indication that the parent language was originally spoken on the Central Asian steppe.
Citation needed. Make it a good one.

And this doesn't address my point about how the spread of language does not have to be through genetic displacement. Like I said, did the number system used the world over, originating in India (pre-vedic origin) imply that Indians went around the world spreading it. If we did not have historical records to the contrary and just looked at records from say, the electronic age onward this is the conclusion linguists would reach. Or more likely they would theorize that a bunch of white horsemen from Austria conquered the entire world and taught them the number system.

not at all. Linguistics isn't science

>English people
>Germanics

That's true

Pajeets are 80% R1a while Poolish are 50-60% R1a, and Balts are 30-40% R1a .

Imo Indians invaded Eastern Europe and forced their language upon Balto-Slavs, unable to speak correctly sanskrit, they later modified it to suit their non-IE ways.

>English language
>not Germanic

It wasn't debunked, it gained more credibility with archeology and genetic research.

I wouldn't be surprised if Pajeets truly believed that.

Aryan Invasion theory has been completely and utterly debunked. It's why Aryan Migration theory exists in the first place.

Of course you wouldn't. It would make discrediting them and sticking to a shaky theory all that easier.

>it wasn't invasion, we just peacefully accepted new rulership, culture and gave them our women
That makes it even worse.

the language is (arguably) germanic , the english people are not. Only continental people are germanic

>arguably
No serious linguist argues otherwise.

lol, you claim to have research on your side but are happy to make unfounded claims such as the vedic culture and pre-islamic rulers being foreign.

the post was in reference to the language not the people. and the original point was that dissemination of a language does not need dissemination of a people so you're making his point for him

>But we don't have any actual proof of a PIE spoken by any people at all
Old Lithuanian

That was reinvented in early XX century. But Nvm.

Are they any studies or research that connect Sea people with Aryan invasions?
Both events happen in similar time frame.
Anyone have anything(I will accept even free thinking).

>dissemination of a language does not need dissemination of a people
Linguists don't claim that is the case either. However, evidence suggests that people don't simply abandon their native language unless there's clear incentive to do so. Either because another language is seen as more prestigious or because of cultural bias against their native language.

aliens wouldn't be able to decide whether its romance or germanic

this shit is literally all made up speculation. Linguistics isn't a science, this is all on the level of hypothesis. Occams razor does away with all PIE, AI, indoeuropean invasion/migration LARPing. Pick which language predates the rest, thats the one which spawned the rest. There's no evidence of non-greek, non-latin indo-european languages in europe until long atfter greeks and romans had extensive contact with all of those people.

wow, this may be the first time on Veeky Forums that nobody has taken the bait. Looks like the reel was tossed a few times too