Aryan Invasion Theory

Is it a myth?

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m.youtube.com/watch?v=t6ubr_DK2ks
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_migrations
languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=980
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No.

Preeeety sure it’s proof of aliens.
They talked about sky ships and missiles.

Clearly a third party reptile invasion wherein Atlantis and Mu fought them off.

Already proven and Pajeet/Paki screeching won't change that.

Are you kidding me? It isn't even remotely controversial in serous circles that the Aryans are invasive to India.

Pretty sure it is called the migration theory now.

Why do Pajeets and Pakis think they had an advanced civilization if they literally saw Indo-Europeans as gods in the chariots n shit?

Indus Valley civilization was more advanced than Indo-Iranian invaders.

And yet look how worshipped Indo-Europeans were there. Literal gods coming on chariots.

That's the origin myth. It doesn't mean this is what happened. Similar thing happened in Greece with Myceaneans being portrayed as heroes and half-gods. Harappans were largely forgotten by then.

They wrote that about themselves you idiot

WE

It had already collapsed when the Andronovo moved in(after taking out BMAC)

bogpill me on aryan invasion theory

Horsefuckers vs Gypsies

Can any of you direct me to one (1) archaeological site in the region of the supposed Aryan invasion which implies a military battle between the PIE peoples and subcontinentals or proto Iranians?

Why, or more importantly how, would Proto-Indo-Europeans be fighting Proto-Iranians?

Better than eating your own people, Fingoloid.

>There is evidence of sustained contact between the BMAC and the Eurasian steppes to the north, intensifying c. 2000 BC. In the delta of the Amu Darya where it reaches the Aral Sea, its waters were channelled for irrigation agriculture by people whose remains resemble those of the nomads of the Andronovo culture. This is interpreted as nomads settling down to agriculture, after contact with the BMAC, known as the Tazabagyab culture.[14] About 1800 BC, the walled BMAC centres decreased sharply in size. Each oasis developed its own types of pottery and other objects. Also pottery of the Andronovo-Tazabagyab culture to the north appeared widely in the Bactrian and Margian countryside. Many BMAC strongholds continued to be occupied and Andronovo-Tazabagyab coarse incised pottery occurs within them (along with the previous BMAC pottery) as well as in pastoral camps outside the mudbrick walls. In the highlands above the Bactrian oases in Tajikistan, kurgan cemeteries of the Vaksh and Bishkent type appeared with pottery that mixed elements of the late BMAC and Andronovo-Tazabagyab traditions.[15]

>Why, or more importantly how, would Proto-Indo-Europeans be fighting Proto-Iranians?
That's...sort of exactly my point.

I hope you understand that BMAC collapsed almost 600 years before Adornovo-Tazabagyab. Use of mothballed forts isn't evidence of warfare.

BMAC were Pre Iranian farmers...

There was a migration. Probably with varying degrees of violence and nonviolent interaction

No, I don't understand that. Probably because it's not true.

You're saying they were Dravido-Elamites aka Zagros farmers?

>You're saying they were Dravido-Elamites aka Zagros farmers?

Exactly...

No, you're just using incorrect terminology.

>BMAC collapse date: 1700 BCE
>Adornovo-Tazabagyab collapse date: 1100-900 CE
Sure thing bud.

Oh noez, I used the term Proto Iranian to describe the native plateau peoples instead of reserving it for only the PIE half of the bloodline alone! Whatever shall we do???

Proto-Iranian has a very specific meaning and can't be used to describe the Pre-Indo-European population of Iran, regardless of their genetic or cultural connection to Iranians.

Why does the Andronovo-Tazabagyab collapse date matter?
I know you're not very smart so take your time.

Here's a little hint, collapse is the end. Is there perhaps an opposite to an end?

It was a migration. No serious scholar talks about an invasion anymore; only in strawmen

The Indo-European/Aryan theory in a nutshell.

One day 5000 years ago. People living north of the Black Sea suffered a mutation causing Haplogroup R1a, R1b, and blue eyes. They were the first "Aryans". They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism) at the same time. Using their superior genes they were able to domesticate horses and build chariots. After doing this they decided to spread out in every direction killing the native men of Europe, India, and Iran and raping their women and spreading their language. For some reason the Basque people were spared even though they have Haplogroup R1b. There's no archaeological evidence for any of this. Just speculation on the part of "linguists".

Yeah it's borderline science fiction.

>One day 5000 years ago. People living north of the Black Sea suffered a mutation causing Haplogroup R1a, R1b, and blue eyes
"No."

>They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism) at the same time
"No."

>For some reason the Basque people were spared even though they have Haplogroup R1b
Brainlet.

>There's no archaeological evidence for any of this. Just speculation on the part of "linguists".
"No."

>Yeah it's borderline science fiction.
"No."

Blue eyes aren't thought to be from the steppe though

Is she a true aryan?

m.youtube.com/watch?v=t6ubr_DK2ks

Yes, it's a myth. Aryan Migration theory on the other hand...

>The Indo-European/Aryan theory
this is not a commonly used term for anything, i don't know what you mean by this.
also IE =/= Aryan, Aryans (or indo-iranians) are a subgroup.

>People living north of the Black Sea suffered a mutation causing Haplogroup R1a, R1b, and blue eyes. They were the first "Aryans".
you're confusing things, genetics is mostly irrelevant to the spread of IE languages. The association of "Aryans" and blue eyes is nazi ideology and not science. it goes along with a bunch of other assumptions about what "Aryans" are that are all wrong as well.
PIE speakers probably lived mostly north of the black sea but proto-indo-iranian speakers ("Aryans") likely lived further to the east in what is kazakhstan today.

> They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism)
PIE speakers and PIA speakers both likely practiced polytheism, there are traces of PIA religion that can be found in the hindu and zoroastrian traditions, but what they originally practiced was neither of those two.

>Using their superior genes they were able to domesticate horses and build chariots
again genes don't come into it. Horses were probably domesticated by PIE speakers, chariots were invented later on by PIA speakers.

>After doing this they decided to spread out in every direction killing the native men of Europe, India, and Iran and raping their women and spreading their language
no, the different subgroups spread out one after the other, probably mostly by small scale migrations followed by cooptation of the existing populations into the social system of the migrants through patron-client relationships, which eventually resulted in adoption of their language in the native society. obviously the history is different for each branch but those are the outlines.

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>For some reason the Basque people were spared even though they have Haplogroup R1b
Haplogroups have nothing to do with it, again you're confusing language and genetics. There were lots of non-IE speaking peoples in europe even after IE speakers started moving in, it's just that over time they mostly gave up their languages, the basques for whatever reason are just the only ones who haven't done that until today. the etruscans for example were a large non-IE speaking civilization that was still around in roman times.

>There's no archaeological evidence for any of this. Just speculation on the part of "linguists".
There IS archaeological evidence otherwise archaeologists would not support this idea. check the books of david anthony for example.
it is not speculation on the part of linguists either, there are well-established and proven methods of historical linguistic research that allow us to reconstruct a common ancestor language.

Aryan anything is complete myth. larping and wewuzzing done with such conviction and long enough ago that it's no longer questioned. Makes me wonder if in the future black Egypt will even be questioned.

However, migration from the Eurasian steppe seems to have solid grounding in fact. Thinking logically it would be more surprising if there wasn't any migration into fertile India from the harsh Eurasian steppe.

However there isn't any proof of any invasion from the north west that isn't tenuous at best. There is however a lot of proof of contact and exchange of ideas between India and the fertile crecent civilizations.

The main reason anyone believes in an invasion is due to linguistics. To me that field is half science and half fantasy. But if you want to look into ait/amt linguistics is where you should concentrate.

Ancient Aryans were nordic

underrated

THE TERMS “ARYAN INVASION", AND “ARYAN MIGRATION”, WHEN APPLIED TO THE INDIAN CONTEXT, ARE MISNOMERS, BECAUSE IT WAS NOT ARYANS WHO INVADED, BUT TURANYANS WHO DID SO.

THESE INVADING TURANYANS ARE “THE VEDICS”, AND ARE EQUIVALENT WITH THE INDOSCYTHIANS, AND WITH THE MUGHALS.


>Is [THE TURANYAN INVASION OF INDIA] a myth?

NO —IT IS A LEGENDARY HISTORICAL EVENT.

Stfu you fucking idiot. There is no such thing as "Turanyans" except the ones that fucked your mother and made you, but they quickly disappeared before the trash like you was born.

migrations are usually associated with violence, don't delude yourself with politically correct terminology

we know blue eyes came from WHG

retard

>Aryan anything is complete myth.
The word "Aryan" has been misused a lot and it has a complicated modern history, being politicised and misinterpreted most prominently by the nazis.
What it originally means, and should mean, is Indo-Iranian. There is pretty solid evidence that the people who spoke the ancestor language of todays indo-Iranian languages called themselves "āryā", you can still see this in the word Iran which derives from the genitive plural "āryānām" ('of the āryās').

Used in this sense there is nothing mythical about it. Relating the word "Aryan" to race or genetics however is indeed inaccurate.

>migration from the Eurasian steppe seems to have solid grounding in fact.
>The main reason anyone believes in an invasion is due to linguistics
actually no serious linguist or archeologist believes in an outright "invasion" but as you say yourself migration is well supported and clearly there was a subsequent language shift to the language of the steppe immigrants.
it's not just the purely linguistic evidence that supports this btw (which by itself is solid enough - there is no doubt that Sanskrit is Indo-European and thus derived from a common source with other IE languages). but also the cultural attestations in works like the Rigveda which clearly show the influence of the legacy of a nomadic steppe culture, with all its reverence for herd animals etc.

>To me that field is half science and half fantasy
There is nothing fantastical about it, it's just that unfortunately linguistics tends to attract lots of crackpot theorists who don't know the methods and think they can make up their own language families by picking out a few similar-looking words. most of the linguistics-related posting you see on Veeky Forums is people who have no idea what they're talking about trying to justify their nationalist origin myths.

Indo-Iranians were Indo-Europeans, pajeet.

??
yes, what is your point?

>we think Indo-Europeans conquered from Spain to India and no one has any record of it

There is a huge piece of this puzzle missing, you're a brainlet if you don't see that. The civilization would have had to have been way more advanced, or we would have heard about it from other peoples, some fucking record or archaeology.

it was a migration, not a global invasion

They didn't worship indo-europeans ad gods, you just made that up

you're actually stupid, don't bother reading

no, you just haven't done your research on the topic. nobody thinks that.
introductory reading:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_migrations
languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=980

Yeah I've read it. I see nothing that explains why these people completely replaced the languages and religions of anyone living from India to Spain.

Why the total dominance but yet so much ambiguity as to their identity? Something is missing.

The Superior Nordic Indo-European warrior CRUSHED the feeble effeminate aboriginal inhabitants of the Indian Subcontinent, killing the men with their superior martial ability and chariots and BREEDING the women with their superior POTENT nordic semen ejaculated deep within their brown dravidian wombs. Indian culture is now ARYAN culture, all of their gods are ARYAN gods

this

Yes Visnu, Indra, Ganesha.... famous Nordic deities

Indra=Zeus stupid soyboy

In 10000 years , most of sweden will be brown, and these brown swedes will be debating the paki/somali migration theory, about how in the distant past, waves of paki/somalis conqurers imposed the patriarchal religion of islam on the effeminate and gender confused native swedes and bred the native swede women with superior potent paki/somali seeds by ejaculating deep within their blonde aryan wombs

tuisto = tvastar
Ymir = Yama
Manu = Mannus
etc

also, the description of the Aryans in the Rigveda is very revealing

Hare Kṛṣṇa Hare Kṛṣṇa
Kṛṣṇa Kṛṣṇa Hare Hare
Hare Rāma Hare Rāma
Rāma Rāma Hare Hare

what a twist. first the nords cuck the pajeets, and then the islamic pajeets cuck the nords