So were the original Britons germanic as well

were they seen as a germanic people even before the anglo saxons?

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No.
They were Brythonic-speaking Celts and Picts (also probably Celts)

How can you be this retarded?

I like this map better.

so that is Cheddar Man then

he would of been a brythonic-speaking celt right?

The Britons weren't Germanic and they weren't seen as Germanic either. They were Celts and were acknowledged as such. However, there is speculation that Germanic peoples may have been living on the coast of Britain during the Roman period or even earlier.

No, Cheddar Man was a western European hunter-gatherer. These hunter-gatherers were absorbed by farmers who originated in Anatolia. The farmers were then almost completely replaced by incoming steppeniggers from the Netherlands who originated on the Pontic steppe. Later, during the Iron Age, the Celts established themselves in the British Isles. The Britons were one of these Celtic peoples.

so when did the celts arive in britain

2000 BC or something?

way after that

probably around 700 BC

lmao you're several thousand years and many, many invasions/settlements too early

>no Celts in Britain & Ireland before 700 BC.

Does that mean the Celtic languages in Ireland & Britain have some non-Indo-European loanwords?
I remember reading up on Picts, suggesting that their matriarchal society & tattoos may have been inherited from the previous population.

>germanic
no

The Celts did not settle in Britain.
The Celtic, Brythonic-speaking peoples of Britain were descended from the same Pontic Steppe settlers from 2500BC.
Recent genetic evidence shows this.

>They were Brythonic-speaking Celts and Picts (also probably Celts)
Celt and Germanic aren't mutually exclusive terms.

>probably around 700 BC
W R O N G
Celts were always in Britain, Celtic culture did not originate in mainland Europe.
Barry Cunliffe co-authored a book with a few others arguing and proving with genetic and archaeological evidence the Celts are native to the British Isles and the Celtic influence in France, Germany, Spain, Southern Scandinavia (Denmark), and Eastern Europe is the result of a Celtic conquest beginning in Britain.

>his family came to England in the 1500s from Spain
>shilling this hard against Anglos

Bell Beaker is far too early for the dispersal of Celtic if that's what you're implying. The Middle-Late Bronze Age is the earliest any scholars have tried to place the beginning of Celtic influence in the British Isles, while Bell Beaker spread to Britain around 2500 BC and the culture disappeared in the early Bronze Age. And even then, most scholars believe that the Celtic culture was spread to the British Isles during the early Iron Age (Halstatt C) through a combination of trade and cultural diffusion with limited population movement.

>if Celts came from Bell Beakers then all Bell Beakers would have become Celts
user....

>if Celts came from Bell Beakers then all Bell Beakers would have become Celts
I am saying nothing of the kind. What I am saying is that it's impossible for Celtic to have existed during the Bell Beaker period, full stop. Yes, it's true that the Celtic culture is ultimately derived from Bell Beaker culture, but that doesn't mean Celtic existed during the Bell Beaker period. Even as late as the Tumulus culture (1600 BC - 1200 BC) it's likely that the Celtic and Italic language groups had not yet diverged. No scholar takes seriously the idea that the Celts were a distinct people as far back as the Bell Beaker period.

>Even as late as the Tumulus culture (1600 BC - 1200 BC) it's likely that the Celtic and Italic language groups had not yet diverged.
Pls give me any study that implies it, I have always read otherwise.

>Kortlandt, 2007, Italo-Celtic origins and prehistoric development of the Irish language
>Eska, 2010, The emergence of the Celtic languages
>Mallory, 2013, The Indo-Europeanization of Atlantic Europe

Also I should add that even if Celtic did split off during the Bell Beaker period, it could not have occurred in the British Isles. There's direct cultural continuity in central Europe between Unetice culture and Hallstatt culture, the earliest definitively Celtic culture, so it couldn't have originated in the British Isles and spread to central Europe. There's no archaeological or genetic evidence for it, and in the transition from Tumulus to Urnfield, for example, there was far more influence coming from the east than from the direction of the British Isles.

>so it couldn't have originated in the British Isles and spread to central Europe. There's no archaeological or genetic evidence for it
youtube.com/watch?v=63Grz46cOeg

I didn't watch the whole video, but I've read about his and Koch's theory and from what I understand the idea is that Proto-Celtic derived from south-west Iberia and developed as a lingua franca in the Atlantic Zone. It's an interesting theory but if it is accurate, it still means that Celtic isn't native to the British Isles since it would have only reached there in the Late Bronze Age.

Anglos aren't pigskin vermin like you.

>since it would have only reached there in the Late Bronze Age.

I think you mean late Neolithic, no?

No, the theory specifies the Atlantic Bronze Age.

Barry Cunliffe is also a hack on par with Mary Beard and is not taken seriously by the wider academic community.

>we wuz germanicz
stop grasping for straws boy

>celebrities are representative of a country
Look mom, i can do it too!