Did Germans have a native term to describe the concept of "Germania" (the area or personification)...

Did Germans have a native term to describe the concept of "Germania" (the area or personification), or has Deutschland always been the only term?

Attached: file.png (700x491, 202K)

Other urls found in this thread:

anthrogenica.com/showthread.php?6522-Early-Medieval-aDNA-from-Poland-coming-soon/page155
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3598329/
welt.de/wissenschaft/article1398825/Nur-wenige-Deutsche-sind-echte-Germanen.html
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vandals
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vistula_Veneti
twitter.com/NSFWRedditGif

>Did Germans have a native term to describe the concept of "Germania" (the area or personification)
Autism

Am I just stupid :(

There is a difference between "Germania" and "Germany" as geographic areas.

no, a lot of people on this board are just snobs, its why there isnt as much traffic as boards like pol but these cunts will still say "hmmm why dont people like history?"

wiktionary says; Deutschland, From Middle High German Diutschlant, compound word formed from phrasings like diutsch lant n, diutsche lant n, in diutscheme lande n, ze diutischeme lande n, (in) diutschiu lant n pl. middle high german was from 1050 to 1350 so insofar as the Germanic peoples had an understanding of 'deutschland' as the Germanic sprachbund, it started at the latest around 1050-1350

This. The insane retardation that results whenever people mention anything German or vaguely related to Germans and Germany in a positive light is asinine and retarded.

It wouldn't get that much traffic regardless, /pol/ competes with /v/, Veeky Forums and /b/ for most posters on Veeky Forums.

Germania has nothing to do with any Germany. And no amount of bullshit German propaganda will change that.

How is someone as low IQ as you even able to type? It's a miracle.

Germania was not homogeneous, several Slavic, Celtic and Germanic tribes lived there and they most likely did not feel that thy belonged to the same ethnicity. Furthermore, German is a Celtic word meaning crier and refered to the Celtic tribes living beyond the Rhine, it was later used by the Romans to designate anyone living beyond the Rhine regardless of ethnicity.

Prove me wrong then. Ethnically pure Germania is a Kraut fantasy of bygone era.Not even 50% of people living there would be like modern Germans.

>Ethnically pure Germania
>Germania was not homogeneous

Moving the goal posts much? The Germania region was named by the Romans after the Germanic tribes, the same region is where Germany is now, inhabited by descendants of said Germanic tribes.

>inhabited by descendants of said Germanic tribes.
Yeah, along with Negroes, Arabs, North Africans, Slavs, Chinks etc etc.

Point being?

That Germania was only a geographical term and has nothing to do with Deutschland.

I don't think you know what OP's asking about. I think he's asking whether or not those of Germania had an idea of themselves as a group separate from the Romans, or if it was solely a Roman construct.

Germania was a geographic location, like modern 'Western Europe", "Eastern Europe" etc.

Germanic tribes often assraped each other and considered other Germanic tribes their enemies.

>Germania region was named by the Romans after the Germanic
There was no such thing as "German" back then, there were Swabians, Saxons, Langobards, Angles, Frisians Bavarians, and so on

>the same region is where Germany is now
Germania was between the Rhine and the Elbe today's Germany is greatly outstretched.

A geographical term for an area inhabited by Germanic tribes, the same tribes who later formed Deutschland

>the same tribes who later formed Deutschland
Ah yes, all the fuckton of tribes of Germania, which included: Celts, Sarmatians, Scyths, Slavs, Balts formed Deutschland.

>there were Swabians, Saxons, Langobards, Angles, Frisians Bavarians, and so on
all germanic tribes who spoke the same language

>Germania was between the Rhine and the Elbe today's Germany is greatly outstretched.
it was between the Rhine and the vistula in Roman times

No it was these tribes you see in that green area right there on the map

Which also includes: Celts, Sarmatians, Scyths, Slavs, Balts. Stop strawmaning you retarded LARPer.

Except it doesn't, my barely literate friend. The slavs came in the area later. Some celt tribes were probably there. I have no idea what iranics and balts have to do with it

Look at the map in OP again.

Get to the point, i dont have all day to waste with brainlets like you.

>claims Germania is the same as modern Germany
>calls people brainlets
You're truly a fucking retard.

Germany was a country founded by descendants of the Germanic tribes who inhabited Germania. Germania was not a political entity if that's what you think im implying, that's a no-brainer.

>often assraped each other and considered other Germanic tribes their enemies
To assrape each other and consider the other tribe an enemy does not completely negate a knowledge of unity in regards to language and culture.

Norwegians, Swedish, Icelanders and Danish considered the others enemies from time to time and knew that they were different groups, yet also knew that they belonged to a similar group, the 'nords'.

Since the west-frankish term Þeodisk, meaning of the people, derives from a German and not a Latin stem to describe the people of Germanic languag, it is save to assume that at least to some extent, a concept of ethnical community was already established. Especially since they had encountered non-Germanic language groups such as the Latin speaking people of the West and South and the Slavic tribes in the east, it would only seem logical, that a realization of similarities within the Germanic group was existent, although probably not fully developed.

>German is a Celtic word meaning crier and refered to the Celtic tribes living beyond the Rhine, it was later used by the Romans to designate anyone living beyond the Rhine regardless of ethnicity
Not true. "Germania" was purely a geographic term. However, the term "Germani" was used in an ethnic sense. The Veneti for example were described as having a similar way of life to the Germani, although differing in language. So while they were considered as part of Germania, they weren't considered as Germani.

this
Prussians have to do with Old Prussia too? No? Then shut up retard.

Geramnic tribes? Such as Lugi, Vandali, Suevi, Semnoni? Yeah very "germanic".

The Prussians were Germanised, the Germans were German to begin with.

Seriously who allows you barely functioning drooling retards like you to use a computer?

The Lugi, Vandals, Suebi and Semnones were not Slavic.

You are focussing on modern terminology of Germans and on his use of the term Germania, while missing the main idea of his question:

He is talking about whether the 'Germans' aka Germanic-language speaking people, had a (to whatever extent) unified concept of community and whether they had a concept of the lands these groups lived it.

What Germany? There was Francia and neigbouring it slavic countries of Lugii-Lutycy, Rugiclei-Rugiani, Varini-Varni, Semnoni-Ploni etc. Constatnt chad slavic continuity despite virgin germanic propaganda.

The Lugii, Rugii, Warini and Semnones were not Slavic.

>Have slavic names
>Are not slavic
germans brainlets everyone

well you are retard since you just accept germanic political propaganda.

this

What Suebi? it is Suevi.

>still no Slavic DNA from early Middle Ages in Western Poland
>t-they were Slavs, I swear!

Wtf are you talking about?

About all the recent research on early medieval Western Poland. Literally all graves have Germanic haplogroups.

The oldest identifiable Slavic archaeological is the Kiev culture. It is dated to the 5th and 6th centuries AD. Pic related, note how far away it is from the lands of the Irminonic Germanic peoples who you seem to believe were Slavic. The Slavic expansion of the early Middle Ages begins with Kiev culture's descendant cultures, Prague-Korchak, Penkovka, and Kolochin.

Attached: Kiev Culture.jpg (800x520, 146K)

Is that why Caesar and Tactius spelt it with a "b"? I have no idea how you came to the conclusion that the original spelling used was exclusively with a "v".

>Western Poland. Literally all graves have Germanic haplogroups.
Show it.

No your edition is faked you retard.

no, Przeworsk is slavic.

You can't make Suebi from Sueui

>5th and 6th centuries AD
I mean the from the 3rd to the 5th. Prague-Korchak was later in the 5th and 6th centuries. Regardless, the point remains that the expansion from the Slavic urheimat occurred far too late for Slavs to be on the Rhine in the first century BC when the Suebi crossed the Rhine into Gaul.

It didn't. It showed typical for Slavs l2a

"No"

I'm sorry but Caesar and Tacitus used "Suebi", not "Suevi".

Which subclades?

KO_55, Kowalewko (100-300 AD), I1a3a1a1-Y6626
KO_45, Kowalewko (100-300 AD), I2a2a1b2a-L801
KO_22, Kowalewko (100-300 AD), G2a2b-L30
KO_57, Kowalewko (100-300 AD), G2a2b-L30

ME_7, Markowice (1000-1200 AD), I1a2a2a5-Y5384
NA_13, Niemcza, (900-1000 AD), I2a1b2-L621
NA_18, Niemcza, (900-1000 AD), J2a1a-L26

Przeworsk was not the Slavic urheimat. It went into decline in the late 5th century and was replaced by the expanding Prague-Korchak culture, not the other way around.

Also, entire thread:
anthrogenica.com/showthread.php?6522-Early-Medieval-aDNA-from-Poland-coming-soon/page155

1000-1200 is not the Early Middle Ages.

>expansion from the Slavic urheimat
No such thing, there was little ice age in these times (cucktorians ignore this) so some of slavic Suevi and slavic Vandali moved south.
It is not possible mathematically that slavs occupied tiny land and expanded quickly up to bremen and franconia so you brainlets are making it up. Also our chroniclers never say anything about it, so you ignore them too. Instead they say about oiur fights with romans and celts.

None of this is typical for Slavs. Where is your precious R1a? Not a single one?

If it has suebi then it is not original writing. What is so hard to understand. Latin is sueui/suevi.

They are autosomally Slavic.

Suppose the Suebi were Slavs. That would mean in the first century BC, the Slavs occupied an area stretching from the Rhine to past the Dnieper. And yet in 500 AD the Proto-Slavic language still remained without internal differences, and Slavic only broke up into West Slavic, East Slavic and South Slavic around 1000 AD. It simply doesn't fit.

>autosomally Slavic
Source? Because you posted only Germanic and some old European Y-DNA. Seriously, how is any of this Slavic?
Sure, some of them are common in Slavic countries, but not because they are Slavic but because they survived the steppe invasion (like I2a-L621 which is the most common in the Balkans).

Show me Latin versions of Bellum Gallicum and Germania that use "Suevi" and not "Suebi".

Ah, so you're a haplobrainlet. Move along then.

>haplobrainlet

No such thing

Y-DNA > Autosomal DNA > mtDNA

You are of course aware that you posted about haploshits 15 minutes ago?

You see. If everyone was as dumb as you are, then all of R1a in Europe would be considered Slavic, since Slavs dominate in R1a frequency.

Attached: pca.png (1127x514, 130K)

I guess Polish scientists are pro-German now.

Attached: GSuhSG5.png (733x835, 423K)

Why did you quote me? I'm not interested in the genetics of Central Europeans in Antiquity and the Early Middle Ages. I was simply calling you out on your hypocrisy.

And by the way, there are plenty of brainlets that do try claiming that R1a = Slavic. Interestingly the vast majority of them are Poles trying to claim that East Germany is Slavic(Polish).

Our langauge is not a fastly mutanting one like germanic, old polish is perfectly understanable unlike old icelandic for icelander. This is just different class of languages. We belong together with sanskrit, greek and latin. Germanic languages are simple and can change quickly.

Around 30 to 40% of East Germans have Slavic heritage no matter how much you shit yourself in the process of trying to debunk it.
Germanic doesn't equal German.

Also, those Iron Age samples were like Swedes and some of them are close to Finns and Eastern Poles from Podlasie, so.

No Germans in sight.

>Around 30 to 40%
*20%

ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3598329/

In some places in East Germany it's as high as 60%

Yeah, Lusatia where the people are literally Slavs. Hardly surprising.

Our cucktorians actually started germanic bullshit hype. Gustaf Kossina is prime example.

Ironically Old Icelandic is actually just another term for Old Norse, which Icelanders can understand. lmao

Why the fuck cannot they properly translate all the names in Edda?

Only thanks to the local women. And there is nothing indicating they spoke a Slavic language or had a Slavic culture.

Remnants of Corded Ware invaded by Germnanics from the North, which were, later replaced by Slavs from the East.
Those samples aren't even from early Middle Ages and apparently they still have Germanic Y-DNA. Where is Kowalewko on this PCA?

>Even fucking E1b1
>But not R1a

Attached: flat,800x800,075,f.jpg (400x386, 41K)

Haploretards.

There is one R1a, but it's not Slavic.

>Only isolated samples of the new paragroup R-M420* were found by Underhill 2009, mostly in the Middle East and Caucasus: 1/121 Omanis, 2/150 Iranians, 1/164 in the United Arab Emirates, and 3/612 in Turkey. Testing of 7224 more males in 73 other Eurasian populations showed no sign of this category.[3]

welt.de/wissenschaft/article1398825/Nur-wenige-Deutsche-sind-echte-Germanen.html

According to "Die Welt". Only 6% of Germans are 'Germanic'. Take it as you will lmao.

C O P E

?

>The Prussians were Germanised, the Germans were German to begin with.
It goes like that: Slavic Germans were nordicised, Baltic Prussians were "germanised" by nordicised Germans.

Constatnt chad slavic continuity despite virgin germanic propaganda

>Constatnt chad slavic continuity despite virgin germanic propaganda
Already disproven ITT

you didn't prove shit.

>Veeky Forumschoolers act more repulsively than /pol/acks

>this is what Poles believe

Attached: 1443554468_sutqee_600.jpg (600x591, 141K)

retarded pop-sci article from 2007

Hello there mr.cucktorian

Your evidence is that some Germanic tribal names sound Slavic. My evidence is a multitude of accounts from Roman writers spanning centuries, direct attestations of various West and East Germanic languages from the period, the fact that the earliest Slavic archaeological cultures are found further to the east, and that Proto-Slavic only began to split up after around 500 AD which absolutely does not work with the Slavs inhabiting an area from the Rhine to the Dnieper as early as the 1st century BC.

>My evidence is a multitude of accounts from Roman writers spanning centuries
This is my evidence suporting slavic people.
>direct attestations of various West and East Germanic languages
yeah like word barditus (bardit) veery germanic

>that Proto-Slavic only began to split up after around 500 AD
dumb cucktorian theory is not a source.
>Slavs inhabiting an area from the Rhine to the Dnieper as early as the 1st century BC.
Of course much earlier you retard, and larger areas than just to Rhine.

-.-
You're right.
Yes.
This.
Correct.
Smart.
Stupid.

>Some medieval authors applied the ethnonym "Vandals" to Slavs: Veneti, Wends, Lusatians or Poles.[10][11][12]
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vandals

>The Slavs, an eastern branch of the Indo-European family, were known to the Roman and Greek writers of the 1st and 2d centuries A.D. under the name of Venedi as inhabiting the region beyond the Vistula. ... In the course of the early centuries of our era the Slavs expanded in all directions, and by the 6th century, when they were known to Gothic and Byzantine writers as Sclaveni, they were apparently already separated into three main divisions: ...
>—An Encyclopedia of World History, William L. Langer, Harvard University, 1940 & 1948
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vistula_Veneti

Attached: Europa_''Germanen''_50_n_Chr.png (1522x713, 643K)