What is the actual mechanism by which mass distorts space-time geometry?

Yes.

can you explain how we know this

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_general_relativity

I read a biography on Einstein recently.
If I recall correctly, he was trying to find a unified field theory, where elementary particles and forces are manifestations of a single field.

In this case, by analogy, mass would be a property of a field (like space time for example), such that the distortion of -the field produces what we perceive as particles in the high density centre and gravitational "wells" at the low density periphery; particles would appear to interact with each other by gravitation because the distortions in distortions of the field act like constructive and destructive interference.

Matter and anti-matter annihilation would result in the unravelling of the distortions of field into two infinitesimally small, and thus massless, distortions (perceived as photons).

It's something like a gearbox, one connected to a shaft that's connected to a wheel that spinst really fast.

Space is curved. If a particle physicist tries to tell you about """gravitons""", stab him in the nuts.

>object
>massless

what is light

youtube.com/watch?v=MO0r930Sn_8

So if we have a really powerful photon(mass energy equivalent of the moon) bouncing between two mirrors we could make 'artificial' gravity?

The question is "what", not "why"

No difference in this case.

As Feynman says in that video, you need a "what" before a "why". We don't have the what.

You're ansking a why question and it will just lead to other why questions.

The einstein equations are
G=k·T
where G is the Einstien tensor, T is the (model specific) energy/pressure density tensor and k is some constant. G is basically the second derivative of the metric tensor g, what whatever.

If T is such and such, then G is such and such. The question "How does it affect" spacetime is moot, given that they are just related by an equality sign.

Consider
a=(1/m)·F
where a is acceleration, m is mall and F is force. Now "How does force affect acceleration"? Just like so.

You could take a reductionist perspective and say: Well the deeper theory is quantum mechanics, and F=ma is just an emergent law that's just some mean values of some wave functions, and that's the how.
(A similar line of thought will work for gravity too, except we don't have a good theory of quantum gravitiy yet.)

But is that an explanation of how? You'll just look at the defining equations and quantum mechanics, say
d(psi)/dt = k·H psi
(Schrödinger equation)
and ask "how does the fundamental model/the Hamiltonian operator H change the wave function psi in time?". Well, like so.

I don't know what you're talking about. Please be more specific.

The OP asked "how does matter bend spacetime?". That sort of question is exactly what Feynman addresses.

>d(psi)/dt = k·H psi
absolutely disgusting, chemists fuck off pls

He's asking for an identification of the physical mechanism by which gravity interacts with matter. WHAT is it. Then you can describe how it happens

And the answer is "we don't know".

Great

Fundamental laws don't have mechanisms. If they did then those mechanisms would work according to fundamental laws and the law being explained would not be fundamental.

This.

gravity is not a fundamental "law"

>What is the actual mechanism by which this happens?
It's postulated. There's nothing deeper than that, other than quantum gravity and stuff.

This.

>post yfw gravitons are real

>physics

...

>implying statistical approximations aren't real actual things