Is the Dirac Delta a function or a generalized distribution?
Is the Dirac Delta a function or a generalized distribution?
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It's a function from the vector space of smooth functions to the corresponding fields
Distributions are functions. I don't understand why people get triggered when you call the [math]\delta[/math] a function. Have they ever opened a functional analysis book?
It's not a function.
It's not even necessary.
Check out the Riemann–Stieltjes integral.
en.wikipedia.org
Discontinuities in the integrator perform discrete samplings of the integrand with a weight equal to the size of the "jump".
A unit step function for the integrator does the same thing as the delta.
Functional Analysis (Walter Rudin).
Now crop me an alternative definition of distributions.
Lil peep
Leavvveeeee me alone
...
define function. and im not being pedantic, it realy does depend. the dirac delta is a functional, which is a function from a vector space to a its underlying field. even if you use the underlying set using the forgetful functor U its still a function from one set to another. if you define function as it is defined in calculus, as a subset of the cartesian product of the doman and codomain with some additional constraints, then its not a function though.
>[..] then its not a function though.
You honestly don't know what you are talking about.
But then you're like freshman so whatever.
its not though, to be a function as usually defined in calc the codomain must be in R, infinity isnt in R.
I just realized I made an error, its NOT a function on the vector space itself, but its still is a function on the underlying set of the vector space. It is also a function on the vector space of function over the base set. I accidentally combined those 2 things into one on my post
Codomain must be in R only for real valued function. For general function it's codomain can be an arbitrary set
A function f:A->B is a relation from the set A to the set B, such that for all a in A there exists one and only one b in B such that afb (a is related to b by f)
distribution
it is undefined at 0
those are the same thing OP
Neither
yes, in set theory in general its also a function, but not in calc/analyses where the domain and codomain must be R^n
Unironically kill yourself.
>it is undefined at 0
[math]\langle \delta,\varphi\rangle=\varphi (0)[/math] you useless bag of meat.
[math]0[/math] is the zero vector hence
[math]\langle \delta,0\rangle=0[/math].
Do not post here if you haven't ever opened a Functional Analysis textbook you negroid.
fine, K^n where K can be R or C if you want to be anal about it.
it's a functional whatever that means I never call it a function