Prove to me that a = a

prove to me that a = a

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The = relation is reflexive. Q.E.D.

that's a self evident axiom you stupid fuck,
means already proven.

rephrase your question as "prove to me that a = a may be false"

...

quantum electrodynamics?

There is only 27 letters, so if:
a != b
a != c
a != d
a != e
a != f
a != g
a != h
a != i
a != j
a != k
a != l
a != m
a != n
a != o
a != p
a != q
a != r
a != s
a != u
a != v
a != w
a != x
a != y
a != z

Then:
a == a

xD

Prove to me that:
> u != fag

theorem: a = a.

proof: think about it

>there is only 27 letters

Which impoverished nation do you come from?

loled, 26* and I forgot "a != t"
cancer

You can prove it using set theory.
I'm to tired to write it out, so you can read about it on your own time.

reflexive axiom of equivalence relations
its that fucking simple

What's a? and what's =?

Quod erat demonstrandum
Means the mathematical proof is complete.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_identity

>Prove that a thing is that thing

Prove that what equals what now?

I remember in my Discrete Structures class the teacher always reminded us to explicitly state was something is. So for example i might say, "Assume A is a set". The a=a question would have triggered him lol.

by definition of =

axiom does NOT mean already proven, it means that it's unprovable

None of yall have valid proofs
And to those people saying "le transitive property lmao" THEN PROVE IT YOU CANT JUST SAY IT YOU BRAINLETS

= is reflexive by definition

one can only prove it to themself
give up naow

If you're wondering how, touch your skin at a certain point the remove a slice of skin and touch where the skin was, then look at an object, it is not another.

a cannot be a for no two things can possibly share the exact same properties

for example, two identical clones have different gps values

You better have written a program to print that out

Define "a = a"

a^2 = a * a
(a^2)/a = a
(a * a)/a = a
a/a * a = a
1 * a = a
∴ a = a

a=a Reflexive property of equality QED

from Bourbaki - Set theory

>proof: left as a problem for the reader

We first assume that a may = !a
if (a = !a), (a = !a) = (a = !a)
else (a != !a) = (a != !a)

>"Transitive" property
>why don't you prove an axiom lol
B r a I n l e t.

Why should I bother proving that when it is self evident? There are far, far more interesting things to prove.