So when Jesus cried out " My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" Did he do it in Hebrew or Aramaic...

So when Jesus cried out " My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" Did he do it in Hebrew or Aramaic? Why can't Mark and Matthew agree on the point? And why were they both included in the canon when one has to be wrong?

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He said it in both you heretic. One after the other.

>and now, for everyone assembled who doesn't know their Hebrew, I'll say it again in a different language. Try to pay attention this time.


Not really buying it user. Why say it twice and not the other "last words" that Luke and John give?

Han sa det på norsk, som er skrevet i Bibelen.

topp kjeks

It was actually in English.

As the early readers of Mark would have known, it's the opening line of Psalm 22, which is ends as a praise of God.

Given that Mark makes a LOT of judaica mistakes, such as attributing divine laws to Moses and not God, as well as mangling the divorce laws to imply that a woman could initiatie divorce of her husband, I don't even know if Mark knew that, let alone his prospective audience.

In any case, it doesn't actually address the question, which is why Mark would then give it in Aramaic, and not Hebrew like the way the Psalm is written, or why Matthew would disagree with him and write it in Hebrew.

Mark was writing to a Roman audience who were unfamiliar with the Psalms but would have known that inhabitants of Judea spoke Aramaic.

Matthew was writing to a Jewish audience who were familiar with the Psalms so he wrote in Hebrew.

>BUT WHICH ONE DID JESUS ACTUALLY SAY!!!!!!1!1!1 THE BIBLE MUST BE WRONG!!! REEEEEEEEEEEE

I don't know maybe he said both.

It's similar in both Aramaic and Hebrew, but the renditions that appears in the gospels were crudely transliterated into Greek and then presented phonetically in future translations.

"Eloi Eloi lama sabachthani"
It's right there in Mark.
It's also transliterated in Matthew as
"Eli Eli lama sabachthani?"

seeAlso, if Mark's writing to people who didn't know better excuses his ignorance of local geography and customs, why was he put in the canon in the first place?

Because the canon was based on which gospels justified Paul's theology best which itself was pulled right out of Paul's posterior.

>such as attributing divine laws to Moses

Then why is Moses called the "mechoqeq" (i.e. Lawgiver)?

Given that Mark was actually living in the first century and you're just a JIDF agent on Veeky Forums, he probably understands the local customs better than you and it is you, not Mark, who is the ignorant one.

Do you really care? That discrepancy is just one in a series. The broader questions of why the canon is what it is today AND who was the real Jesus are what matter.
/THIS
Amen!!!! Paul was a usurping opportunist who tarnished Jesus' legacy for all time.

Jewish was a JEW, not Catholic, not Orthodox, not Protestant, but A JEW!!!!!
IF YOU ARE NOT JEWISH YOU DO NOT FOLLOW JESUS' TEACHINGS.

[Judaizing intensifies]

>My me, my me, why have I forsaken myself

>Then why is Moses called the "mechoqeq" (i.e. Lawgiver)?

He's not.

internationalstandardbible.com/L/lawgiver.html

>Given that Mark was actually living in the first century and you're just a JIDF agent on Veeky Forums, he probably understands the local customs better than you and it is you, not Mark, who is the ignorant one.

Given that Mark calls local chiefs kings when that was expressly illegal (and got Jesus nailed to the stick, remember?) attributes Sadducee positions to Pharisees, quotes Jesus as admonishing husbands not to divorce their wives and wives not to divorce their husbands, thus implying the latter was a right they had when it wasn't, misquotes scripture in his second verse, and switches around the placement of Tyre and Sidon, no, I think it's fair to say that he's rather ignorant.

So are you, by the way.

>internationalstandardbible.com/L/lawgiver.html

>Moses is pre-eminently the lawgiver in Jewish circles

Oy vey did you even read the link before you posted it?!

Yes, and what's more, I do so in context.Let's have the full quote, shall we?

>The Hebrew word is restricted to poetic passages, and except in Isa 33:22 is applied to a tribal or kingly ruler. Moses is pre-eminently the lawgiver in Jewish and Christian circles, but it should be noted that in the Scriptures of neither is he given this title.


People would take you guys more seriously if you were a little more intellectually honest

Is that pic legit?

This

Fedoras have stooped so low as to start nitpicking grammar and they can't even fucking get that right

The point is that "Lawgiver" is an accepted title for Moses in Jewish circles and therefore Mark was not mistaken in attributing him for giving the Law.

Its always hilarious seeing /pol/Christians trying to justify their meme faith in light of real tradition, banking on memes when they cant answer back.

>complains about memes
>posts meme

dank t.b.h.

He transported the law from God. Mark seems to think he made the law. He somehow turned a delivery boy into the manufacturer.

I'm not the one getting BTFO itt, I can use memes for non-argumentative purposes.

>seems to think

As a master of deception yourself, you ought to know that things are not always as they seem.

Actually you are.

I'm not even the one arguing, just an ex-christian observer.

>I'm not even the one arguing
>he said argumentatively

Just stating facts famalam

You're literally arguing with me right now.

...

The sky is blue.

The capital of America is Washington DC.

Jesus is not the Messiah.

I am proclaiming facts.

>facts

Yeshua ha-notzri was a false Messiah. This is objective fact. I am simply stating what has already been said ITT.

THE GOYIM KNOW SHUT IT DOWN

No.
The sky is not inherently blue, it only appears that way from time to time.
America has many countries and therefore many capitals including Ottawa, Buenas Aries and Cuidad de Mexico.
And Cyrus the Great of Persia was the savior (Messiah) of the Jews.