North Korea and South Korea apart from 50 years

There's nothing about Korean that lends it to being more easily manipulated than English.

Mandarin, yes due to it's character based system (Language manipulation to serve Party needs is the overwhelmingly major reason why Mao and Friends came up with Simplified Chinese) but there's nothing special about Korean.

The reason Best Korea is different is because ALL of their media comes from a group that's trying to alter their language/culture.

So when I asked if you were retarded, you didn't answer, but the answer is obviously yes?

>brits and muricans share the same relationship as NK and SK.

xD

Splits in language have to occur over many hundreds of years
>because reasons

Answer the question, are you retarded?

I'm curious as to what you would say if he answered, "Yes. I am literally retarded."

Probably nothing, I pose the question all the time. No one actually answers it, for some reason, I dunno why?

I will have to keep that rebuttal in mind.

Who is this semen demon?

If anything, you are the one retarding the progress of OP's question being answered. Why be so antagonistic? If you think there's an obvious answer to someone's question, and the person asking is "retarded" for doing so, then please reveal that answer. You must know it.

>>North Koreans are basically illiterate in South Korea and vice versa.

Gonna need a source

It took a month to travel between Britain and the 13 colonies for all of their history. Pic related was mocked and derided for his un-British accent and un-British soldiers. British travelers in the colonies had been describing linguistic and accent differences between the colonists and the English since the 1600's. It is very clear that extended splits between peoples produces linguistic differences, especially when travelling between these groups of people is both very long and very expensive, so then why is the linguistic difference almost negligible compared to two groups of people that had been apart for only 50 years? Granted, completely apart, but only 50 years apart.

>Answer the question, are you retarded?
No.

youtube.com/watch?v=ym3HnjBxPsw

>my head is up my ass
>north koreans forgot other countries existed

Can we get a serious reply?

>If anything, you are the one retarding the progress of OP's question being answered. Why be so antagonistic? If you think there's an obvious answer to someone's question, and the person asking is "retarded" for doing so, then please reveal that answer. You must know it.

>implying it hasn't already been answered
>implying it requires any thought
>implying OP has used actual reasoning to deduce a reasonable question
>implying OP will make more thoughtless threads
>why don't NK and SK understand each other when America and Britain do
>not a retarded question required retarded answers
xD

Feel free to answer his question. Oh, but you can't.

This and another are the two comments that make sense. The plausible way for this sort of gap to develop would be intent on someone's part.

That's just a meme.
They have different accents yeah but so do people from Busan vs Jeju vs Seoul. And while the South uses koreanized English words for some modern stuff, the North instead adapted Russian words.
Kim Il-Sung tried some stupid manipulation of Hangul in the north but they gave it up in like 2 years.
Besides that they can understand each other just fine.

t. Koreaboo with Korean waifu who is moving to Korea.

It sounds like you're trying to be a smug cunt instead of addressing a legitimate question. 50 years is a very short period for a very radical divergence, especially when there wasn't even a foreign entity imposing their language.

When you look at the evolution of English it took fucking centuries. With the divergence between English in England and the colonies there are distinctions, but not terribly radical given the space of time. it's a pretty legitimate question why there would be a more extreme divergence in one case than another.

This might be obvious to you, and if it is, please explain it for us "retards" or fuck off.

They need a translator app to function in normal society.
youtube.com/watch?v=ym3HnjBxPsw

>It is very clear that extended splits between peoples produces linguistic differences

Kek, by this one singular experience with 2 peoples who have been intrinsically linked their entire existence?

The only reason you have this problem is because both languages are called "Korean". I mean, you literally answered your own question.

>Kek, by this one singular experience with 2 peoples who have been intrinsically linked their entire existence?
And this doesn't apply to the English colonists who first moved away from England because...?

I agree, it has been answered - not by you, though. If you look, you'll see I replied to one of the kind people who did attempt to answer the question. My comment's input was the general idea of intent being the driving force behind the divide OP is detailing.

>And this doesn't apply to the English colonists who first moved away from England because...?
Because they are not fucking North Korea who despise South Korea and will do anything to change from them? Again, are you LITERALLY retarded? Is it not obvious to you that they are doing it on a state level to separate themselves from their southern counter-parts? I mean, that's why I asked if you are retarded or not, the answer is so fucking simple. It's goddamn North Korea, you cannot expect them to do anything normal.

Pilgrims fled religious persecution. North Koreans wanted a split from South Korea. If anything you should be using their civil war as an example as to why their languages are different, but obviously they are not. You have actually no point because you refuse to see the most obvious fucking answer.

dat high-horse though

You mean like this?

>Because they are not fucking North Korea who despise South Korea and will do anything to change from them?
Again, and this doesn't apply to the Americans who fought and warred with the British not one, but two times within the span of 30 years because?

>Pilgrims fled religious persecution
Confirmed illiterate /b/tard. The first English colonists were Tobacco growers in Jamestown, New England. The Puritan's only extended as far as Connecticut. Other than that, there was no Puritan influence on the other 9 colonies.

>North Koreans wanted a split from South Korea
And Americans did not want to split from the British, right?

It takes a two second google search to figure out where and when the first colonists settled in America, and only one or two minutes of reading to figure out both the character of the men who settled there, as well as the extent of the Puritan's influence, who settled over a decade later, and you're calling me retarded for not having a detailed understanding of North Korean linguistic policy?

>Mandarin, yes due to it's character based system (Language manipulation to serve Party needs is the overwhelmingly major reason why Mao and Friends came up with Simplified Chinese)
[citation needed]

God dam, I am done - you ARE a literal retard. Thread hidden.

>WHY AREN'T THESE TWO CASES THE SAME WHEN HISTORY IS EXPLICITLY TELLING ME THEY ARE NOT THE SAME
xD

>Shitposts in thread, accusing others of mental problems for not understanding a question asked
>gets replies asking why he would think such a thing
>continually misspells and uses emoticons to illustrate his thought process
>gets caught talking about a historical event he knows nothing about
>"God dam(n), I am done"

xD

north korea smoked dope whilst south korea sucked on fluoride and shit
terrence mckenna - langauge evoles
t food of the gods

one became a military base for the west (UN)whilst the other under the commy proxy satelite of china

clearly a slow night on grindr...

Go fuck yourself, you pointlessly antagonistic piece of human garbage.

>North Koreans and South Koreans can barely understand each others accent and written language.
This is completely overblown. You can understand each other perfectly fine. The biggest handicap is that Norks can't read Hanja, which is fine, because Hanja are stupid.

Word Choices and English Introduced words are the biggest differences in spoken language. That and pre-existing linguistic difference between North and South Korea.

They can still understand each other perfectly fine.

>The reason Best Korea is different is because ALL of their media comes from a group that's trying to alter their language/culture.
North Korean is the FAR more conservative of the two.

hanja are actually a really good system for what they were created to do, and you should feel bad

That really shows your answer. It isn't the entire language, it's completely different individual words. New loanwords come in to one but not the other, new terms are invented for emerging technology, existing words might be modified/created/discouraged for political reasons, slang can ascend to "real word" status, plenty of things.

The fundamental elements of the languages have not changed.

You sound like a dick.
An autistic dick.

Read up on NK's attempt to "purify" the language. They basically wanted to rid their language of as much foreign influence as possible (playing into Juche ideology which places huge emphasis on autarky) This includes not only new English loanwords like ice cream or internet but older Chinese loanwords which make up a bulk of Korean vocabulary even before the division and replace them with pure korean words, many of which are completely made up. So they're not really preservining traditional Korean language or whatever as many seem to think.

Conversely there are also some words in South Korea that are conpeletely fallen out of their use because of their association with North Korea. Words like "comrade" or "labor" or "people" which have been replaced with other made up words with similar meanings.

As an addition to the conversation, here is an article from the North Korean Constitution that speaks to their thoughts on language:

Article 54. The State shall safeguard our language from all attempts to obliterate it and shall develop it to meet present-day needs.

Not merely 'developed independently' but diverged linguistically to a point of incomprehensibility. How does this not need explaining? It's not normal m8