Which haplogroup is supreme, Veeky Forums?

Which haplogroup is supreme, Veeky Forums?

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N1c-L550

E3b1

Only one haplogroup exist. The human haplogroup.

Definitely not R1a. The Greeks remarked that Scythian men suffered from infertility because of too much horseriding but in reality this was because their haplogroup which has a bizarre mutation in the SRY-gene which makes them not fully male.

I2b

Indo Aryan steppe niggers go back to Kazakhstan and gtfo my Europa reeeeeee

R1b is the master race

>Germans, French, British, N. Italians, and Spaniards in one haplogroup

well, R1b wins easily then

You forget Portugal

Don't forget Chadic and Bashkir, which puts them back to start

hahaha

what happens when two distinct haploshits crossbreed

It won't result in a baby but if it did it would be similar to Swedes.

You know it

Y-DNA or mtDNA is overwritten depending on which haplogroup the father/mother belongs to.

i.e. an R1b dad will produce R1b children but if an R1b female crossbreeds with I1 it will produce I1 children.

All members of a haplogroup need to share common ancestry on either the male (for Y-DNA) or female lines (mtDNA).

R1b > I1 > O3e > All others about equal > B2

>E3b1
W..WE?

I believe that you, sir, would mean to suggest that we were of ancient Coptic nobility and such

Aristotle was Somali

source

citation needed

>ancient
>coptic

triggered

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Venus_Castina

>Herodotus wrote that Aphrodite Urania cursed a group of Scythians who pillaged Venus' temple at Ascalon by making them effeminate:

>but the Scythians who pillaged the temple, and all their descendants after them, were afflicted by the goddess with the “female” sickness: and so the Scythians say that they are afflicted as a consequence of this and also that those who visit Scythian territory see among them the condition of those whom the Scythians call “Hermaphrodites”. — The Histories, book I, chapter 105. Herodotus.

Scythians were essentially incapable of heterosexual intercourse because they weren't fully male and this was only because of their haplogroup subclade R1a-Z93 which by the way is extinct in Europe outside some Turks(a people not exactly known for their heterosexuality).

We know that for example Ossetians who speak an Iranic language have no R1a-Z93 nor do Slavs, Volga Finnics or anyone else that was in contact with the Scythians.

>not more than 40% any country
>supreme
lel

you were talking about R1a as a whole though, not some particular subclade

I was slightly baiting but there is a mutation in the R1a haplogroups SRY sex determining gene that is unusual because it's generally protected from mutations.
I think it's very possible every R1a male is just one mutation away from the "female sickness" affecting his son.

can you give me some sauce on Z93 being a mutation that makes its carriers not fully male

There's no source other than the complete absence of Z93 just about everywhere in Europe even though we know that it was carried by Scythian tribes at around 100% frequency and that they did live even as far as Hungary from ancient DNA studies.

It's near extinction fits perfectly with the female sickness recorded by Greeks.
Asians still have plenty of Z93 but it could be that their types have a back mutation which fixed the female sickness problem or that they never had the problem to begin with it and it was exclusive to Euro-Scyths.

can you give me some scientific sauce on any of this
otherwise I'll just discard it

It would be impossible to scientifically test it other than through cloning a Z93 Scyth or perhaps a large number of them.

But it makes so much sense to link Z93 with Scythian female sickness since we do know for a fact it should exist in Europe but it doesn't.

How can you know for sure it ever even existed?

>makes them not fully male
hmm

European Scythians had almost exclusive Z93 in the first millenium BC and their presence did extend quite far west so they couldn't have been isolated from the main European gene pool.

And still even if they were isolated it's still absent in Ossetians which makes no sense since they are supposed to be their descendants.

No, what I was asking was that how can you know that this "female sickness" wasn't something Greeks made up? R1a-Z93 carriers aren't any more infertile than their tribal brethren in the West.

But since R1a has a bizarre and fucked up mutation in the SRY gene it makes sense that they would be suspectible to something like infertility when it's combined with some other mutation.
I don't think Greeks hated Scythians so I doubt they lied-

>I don't think Greeks hated Scythians so I doubt they lied
It's not like this is a prerequisite for them making up shit about non-Hellenes

But still it makes almost too much sense when you look at all the facts together so my hypothesis is definitely plausible.

Maybe some large medical study of hermaphrodites in some R1a heavy country would find that a disproportionate number of them carry R1a.

>look at all the facts
What are these facts you speak of? Everything you've written so far is pure conjecture based on dubious Greek sources about supposed Scythian infertility.

we wuz CHIM

Look, the sex determining SRY gene is protected from mutations for a reason.
That's why it's more or less identical throughout the world.
R1a having a mutation there is REALLY fucked up and the effects of it are impossible to imagine to be neutral.

Female sickness seems exactly like something someone with a malfunctioning SRY would have.

J1-J2

>R1a having a mutation there is REALLY fucked up
>malfunctioning SRY
source
>Female sickness
this isn't even a thing, like I said

C4

with that I meant give me a source on such a mutation existing

R1a1a is defined by SRY10831.2.

The SRY means that it is located inside the SRY gene which determines gender rather than in some safe spot outside it.

link me some studies stating this, I can't be assed to look this shit up

Just Google it for fucks sake.
Obviously having SRY10831.2 alone isn't enough to get female sickness but since people with it are different from all proper males it opens up a new world of genetic disorders relating to gender.

nah, burden of proof is on you not me

I already proved everything I need to by providing you with the name of the SRY mutation which defines R1a1a.

How consistent are haplogroups with ethnicities?
l1 is both considered to be indicative of the Indo-European Germanic ethnicities, yet it's supposedly a native (before the Indo European migrations) gene.

I1 people were rolling around in shit throwing sticks and stones at each other before Indo-European R1 people brought them their language and civilization so strictly speaking no, I1 carriers are language shifters and not real Germanics.

At least I1 men don't suffer from female sickness though.
Scythians would still be around if they let some I1 bros bang their wives.

bullshit, literally found no source stating that said mutation is somehow exceptional in a manner like this

I1 cavemen are trying to bring the aR1an man down

So, if my memory of events serves me right, the Centum branch of the Indo-Europeans moves west out of Anatolia/Steppes or the like. Italo-Celtics move south of the Alps and Germanics go north. Celtics end up in Iberia, Gaul, abd the British Isles, Italics in the Italian peninsula and Sicily, and the Germanics in Jutland and Southern Scandinavia.

So why would the environmentally shittier northern region not replace the genes yet replace the culture, and the certainly more populace southern and western regions replace the genes and culture?

Greeks hated everyone.

>So why would the environmentally shittier northern region not replace the genes yet replace the culture
They basically did though, I1 peaks at 40% in Scandinavia with the rest being Indo-European lineages.

I1 is a very bottlenecked haplogroup.
There are no clades of it older than 5000 years and younger than the common ancestor of I1 and I2 30000 years ago.

We could make an argument that it's somehow superior to R1a and R1b and was for a long time outnumbered several thousand to one but gradually expanded and will continue to expand.

So I1 is just your native hunter-gatherer that was native to northern Europe, that was ethnically absorbed into the Germanics.
So where Germanics go, (southern Germany, eastern Great Britain) they bring that hitchhiking native gene?

I2a1b of course

>So where Germanics go
To Germany

Nobody has a clue what the specific origin of extant I1 is but yes it was spread by Germanics exclusively as no one else has it.

Master race is I2 though, R1b are the plebs of those societies.

So a single ethnic group has a haplogroup that isn't from that ethnic group?

Well because of Germanic migrations it can be found in Germanic settlements from Finland to Portugal.

12a Balkan.

Q3 reigns supremo. Look how vast that shit is in turf. The world has never seen a region on this earth so pure. All the tribes having just this one gene found nowhere else and being close to 100% O+ blood. You know what that means for a people in a state of war. Endless supply of blood. I wonder how the shit did these ppl do what the mongols dreamed of. Do you know what its like for one race to have control of 14m sq miles. Even the new world monkeys are different than those of the old world.

N1c

Family grew so big, it formed clans and clans gave way to tribes. And tribes said to the other tribe stay in your own area to hunt come to mine to talk if anything only, no hunting we have ppl to feed. Or else we want the transgressors head. No one else gets hurt.

Have any one seen a native american murder court trial? Usually doesnt end in death. Last one ive seen one tribe had to pay off the other tribe with over 500 heads of cattle and 200 goats.

R1b. its the majority in the uk, france and italy whose contributions to the world are substantial.

more like the big nose haplogroups.

petrol huffing master race genetics.

the british royals are R1b.