What caused the spread and eventual dominance of Germanic language and culture?

What caused the spread and eventual dominance of Germanic language and culture?

What dominance? If anything it's less dominant than it used to be. France and like half of Eastern Europe used to be Germanic speaking.

You're posting in a Germanic language.

You mean French.

English is still counted as a Germanic language.

The Volkwanderung happened to reach it's apex as the Roman empire waned

The Germanic language never took a foothold in Southern Europe, as the invaders assimilated to Latin languages and customs (in East Europe, the same but assimilation took longer)

Kill yourself.

By that logic, Spanish is a Semitic language due the large amounts of Arabic vocabulary.

>Spanish is a Semitic language
But it is.

>spain
>white

The clearing of the North European Plain and establishment of new cities along the rivers and coasts of central and northern Europe, which gave them an edge over their Slavic neighbors.

>The clearing of the North European Plain
Can you elaborate on this?

b8

In short, the huge forests of Germany that kept the Romans out were in the Medieval period steadily cleared leaving a massive, near-continuous farming region that increased population, industry, and urbanization.

Makes sense.

The expansion of Germanic languages already took place long before the carruca allowed for people to clear the European plain.

And the Slavs were the first to use it in Europe from our archaeological record, and they cleared Germans from the North European plain during the Migration Period so I don't understand this hypothesis. It seems very credulous.

I'm mostly referring to the dominance of the Germans in the Middle Ages rather than early settlement and spread in the migration period.

Slavs went to places that had been practically abandoned by East Germanics

>snowniggers
>white

>you
>white

>they cleared Germans from the North European plain during the Migration Period
More like they moved in after the Germanics vacated those lands.

You're right, I'm a superior oriental.

>orientals
>white

>white
>white

Oh my god, it just hit me that the term snownigger isn't because they're white as snow but because they live in snow.

This is sad if true.

Literally just English, so England.

Aren't they a pretty nomadic lot? Vikings, Anglo/saxons, roman era germanic people. Seem to always be migrating and invading other lands, I doubt northern europe was even their original homeland. Didn't they originate in the steppe?

I'm not sure about the initial spread around the turn of the millennium, but around 2-300 AD it was the Huns pushing them out of their homelands east of the Rhine, and then Germanic peoples pushing further into Roman territory as a consequence

many Germanic tribes already had lands in the provinces

>dominance of Germanic culture

lol

you know medieval Europe was basically just a bunch of Germanic realms?
Franks --> France and HRE
Visigoths --> Spain
Ostrogoths, Lombards --> Italy, Crimea
Vandas --> Africa

yes, in the end they did mix with the local cultures
but Franks remained an aristocracy over the Gauls for a long time
even as a minority

Saxons too

Surely you mean
>What caused the spread and eventual dominance of British language and culture?

You don't get to ride on our coat tails Hans

Autism

A guy called Attila had something to do with it.

Two words: RULE, BRITANNIA!

germanic tribes spread through northern europe long before Attila,

germanic peoples evolved out of the nordic bronze age 1000-500 BC

proto-indo-europeans evolved on the the ukrainian stepps 4000 years ago

the better question is why the fug didn't southetn europe use the languages of their germanic overlords, the goths in italy and spain, the franks in france etc

They did, but didn't reproduced as fast as the local population. Eventually their offspring was educated by monks and the likes, further alienating them from their Barbaric heritage. From that on, it was only a small step to completely adopt the flourishing local culture.

France isn't monolithic
Franks in the North and the Middle
Allamani-Suebi in the East
Burgundians in the Middle, the East, and the South East
Wisigoths in the South-West
Ostrogths in the South-East

>Franks remained

Thjey're Trojans not Germanic.

Whats with the flame war between krauts and frogs?

Frogs can't accept that Karl wasn't French.

It's cold outside.

Germans like the Anglos doesn't accept that they have been conquered by the French, so they say it was the Franks, just like the Anglos say it was the Normands who conquered them.

>you know medieval Europe was basically just a bunch of Germanic realms?

No, it wasn't, not from a cultural point of view. The Middle Ages in Western Europe were a period of Latin Christian culture. It doesn't matter if certain polities were named after Germanic tribes or if Romanised Germanics had established polities in parts of it during an earlier period. One can hardly say that Mediaeval high culture had an "ethnic" character at all.

The Normans were Norse men.

>The Middle Ages in Western Europe were a period of Latin Christian culture.
Only when it comes to the culture of the Church itself. There was definitely Frankish, Anglo-Saxon, and Ottonian court cultures as well as Gallo-Roman and other Romanized regional cultures and laws throughout Western Europe. The Franks definitely influenced French/German law and religion, and definitely had an impact on the culture of Spain, England, Italy, and Eastern Europe.

That is not true.
Slavs were there before Germanics migrations.
Germanics move through the country but they not stay permanently.