What happened to India's wealth?

Are you from /pol/ by chance?

this

Seemingly the effects of the mughal concuest were close to minimal from this chart.

But i guess it must be the muslims.

The rest of the world stopped shitting in the streets and immediately become relatively much more wealthy.

Who's ass did they pull the numbers for this graph from?

muslims wouldn't interfere with india's wealth creation because they wanted that sweet jizya dosh

>international trading never happened prior to modern times

>/pol/
>hates commies
>hates muslims (those other fascists)
>just hates, due to flawed and insecure nature
i love the part on the graph where world gdp from the years 1 to 1000 is shown.
>US gdp from 1 to 1700
Guesses and made up stuff look great in graphs.

>listening to me please, children *wobbles head*
>before the Britishes and Muslims were coming to Bharat *drinks cow urine*
>we were 25 percent of world GDP *throws dead body into ganges
>no black death come to India because of cleanliness *wipes ass with bare hand and makes a curry
>It was a very very clean land *manages off shore call centre*
>We wuz shitting in loo n shieeet, yes yes yes *plays sitar*

Quite the greentext buddy, still got any evidence that everything went to shit because of the mooslem?

The date listed look a bit cherry picked but I will bite. Focusing on the first one I think there may be a issue for Italy plus France on that table, or rather failing to use the Roman Empire broke into core regions. Second Japan around 1 AD was very poor, underdeveloped, and underpopulated. It should be a even smaller part of the whole then US at the time. These two issue make me wonder about the whole table.

Moving forward to your question with if Indian just had a head start on development. Also there was a very real effort in European maritime trade to cut out the traditional middlemen of the silk road. This is not to say Indian produced nothing that was wanted but as a culture they did greatly profit from buying and selling to its neighbors things from the other side of its border.

The world stopped having the giant boner for spices and other commodities faced increased competition from plantations elsewhere.

>PPP in 1AD
This is purely opinion.

Can someone explain to me how India was ahead of China pre-1500? Wasn't China always more populous than India?

>Count Italy in 1 AD
>But not count the whole Roman Empire

Not if you count Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka as well.

The British stole it.

Nothing. Other places became more productive.
The industrial revolution happened.
Life is not a zero sum game.

How on earth did they collect this data

"India" didn't exist in 1 AD.
In a way, neither did China, but at least it had a central government at that time.

It's just some meme graph by a brit foreignboo

Meanwhile in reality...

In the pre-modern era, "GDP" was almost entirely composed of agricultural production. Since India had a huge population already back then, they're share of the global "GDP" was also huge. That's it.

Nepal and Afghanistan too

is this real

what's their secret

>colonialism was good guys!

lmao

Colonialism BTFO

>Since India had a huge population back then
Not really. It was comparable to europe's.

Do one for other countries to compare or this is trash

This

en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_population_estimates

That chart only shows relative percentage of world wealth

India probably remained about the same wealth wise

When Europe industrialized their wealth grew so much that it took a great share of the world's wealth

Before the industrial revolution Europe was pretty poor

Anglos stole it all of course.