The Persian and Aryan split

The Persian and Aryan split.

When and how did this happen?

Were they already split by the time the Vedas were composed?

Other urls found in this thread:

ahandfulofleaves.org/documents/The Origin of the Indo-Iranians_Kuz’mina.pdf
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Iranians
twitter.com/SFWRedditGifs

one group liked riding around on horses in Persia, the other liked farming in India

This is a pretty good book on the subject

ahandfulofleaves.org/documents/The Origin of the Indo-Iranians_Kuz’mina.pdf

Just read the last chapter, conclusion if you want a tl;dr

The correct term would be "The Iranian and Indian split"

The Hellenic period cut them off from the East. Indians used Aramaic for a long time after the Persian Empire was gone.

Not really, as southern India was not really influenced by the Aryans.

>Persians used Aramaic

Wtf?

The Iranian and the Indo-Aryans split. They're both Aryans.

What? Aramic was the lingua franca of the Mede, Achaemenid, Parthian, and Sassanid empires. And if you include Alexander's empire and the Seleucid empire, it was basically used by them for nearly 2000 years.

You do realise that Iranians means Aryan? that's like saying Muslims and Islam split

Are afghans and kurds iranians?

Sri Lanka?

"yes"

It was the lingua franca the same way greek was the lingua franca in the most important parts of the empire apart from Italia and maybe Illiria itself.

Greek has nothing to do with Iranian empires though.

Large movment of indo aryan tribes from Kalinga after they were genocided by Emperor Ashoka, they established the buddhist Kingdom centered around Anuradhapura.

of the roman empire*

>Iranians means Aryan

I wouldn't pay too much attention to the semantics.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Iranians

The Indo-Iranians are so named because the Indo-Europeans from Sintashta first migrated into India, then moving onto what we now call Iran.

Nigga

They literally use "Arya" as a self-designation for Iranian in their languages.

>Unlike the several meanings connected with ārya- in Old Indo-Aryan, the Old Persian term only has an ethnic meaning. That is in contrast to Indian usage, in which several secondary meanings evolved, the meaning of ar- as a self-identifier is preserved in Iranian usage, hence the word "Iran". The airya meant "Iranian", and Iranian anairya meant and means "non-Iranian". Arya may also be found as an ethnonym in Iranian languages, e.g., Alan and Persian Iran and Ossetian Ir/Iron. The name is itself equivalent to Aryan, where Iran means "land of the Aryans", and has been in use since Sassanid times.

>use "Arya" as a self-designation for Iranian

no, that sentence is not correctly structured.

>use "Arya" as a self-designation
fixd

Wrong.

>use X as a self-designation for Y

no you don't understand

No, you don't actually. Arya/Aryan literally translates as "Iranian" in Persian and other Iranic languages. It has only ever meant and been used as term for race/ethnicity, unlike how the Indians use it whom tend to have different appropriations for what Aryan means.

I meant that southern India is not as influenced by Indo-Europeons as northern India was. After all, most southern Indias speak languages that are not in the Indo-Europeon language group, and for the most part were never a part of any of the larger Indian empires.

Aren't Dravidians closely related to Australian Aboriginals?

Not really. Australian Aboriginals are actually descended from one, if not the first wave of humans do leave Africa. Dravidians are the remenants of the Indus Valley civilization who fled the Indo-Europeon invaders.

Are you stupid? 'Iranian' or any other form of -ian is a western suffix, thats not how they call themselves in their own language

Persia is 98% mountains. Riding around on horses isn't what happens there.

>The term Iran derives directly from Middle Persian Ērān, first attested in a 3rd-century inscription at Rustam Relief, with the accompanying Parthian inscription using the term Aryān, in reference to Iranians.

Aryan is how uncultured western barbarians pronounced Iran.
Then they went full retard and started calling it Persia.

It started with the Greeks norm of calling everyone based on their city states; they're called Parsis, derived from Parsa / Persepolis, the capital of Achaemenids

Pars is a province. Parsagarde was the main capital that Cyrus the Great created until Darius decided to make a new city capital, which would become Persepolis.

>Parsagarde

Thats not persian. In persian it is Pazargrad, which I think means "market city".

t. not a persian

Buddhist Bengalis

>It's an "Everyone in Iran is a Persian." Thread.

The split happened around ~1800 BC in the Urals/Kazakhstan. Indo-Aryans went to Anatolia(Mitanni) and South Asia while Iranians went to Iran.

Nothing else to it.

Hey dickhead OP
i read in bible Persians are Semites along with A-rabs and kikes
does your thread mean they really are Semites?

There was no "Z" sounding consonant in it.

>Osprey illustrations