Is it possible to restore the Egyptian language?

Is it possible to restore the Egyptian language?

Other urls found in this thread:

en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Copt
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Egypt#Names
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copts#Etymology
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coptic_language#Name
gospel-thomas.net/noman.htm
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nubian_languages
youtu.be/hv0kJltPsS8
twitter.com/NSFWRedditVideo

just start a coptic nationalist movement in order to make them adopt an equivelent to modern hebrew

I mean, Copts generally speak Arab, but I'm sure plenty still know

Coptic still exists bro. They're still using the same writing system they did 2000 years ago.

Looks cool in all honesty.
I hope it catches on so Pan-Arabism can die already and each individual country can embrace it's own unique historical identity.

Language aside, most Moslem countries hate Arabs themselves, especially countries like Persia or regions like Chechnya

you could but it would probably turn out like modern hebrew, i.e. significantly different from the original language and with a strong accent of the native language (in the case of Hebrew it's a Yiddish accent, in the case of Egyptian/Coptic you would get and Arabic accent).

it's only used as a liturgical language nowadays. some people are learning it to connect with their heritage but there are no coptic native speakers any more.

>Hebrew it's a Yiddish accent
>implying Hebrew didn't borrow a lot from Arabic albeit they are related

I know kitchen Arabic (growing up terrorist) and I can recognize some Hebrew words when spoken like house, day ,etc.

that's not because of borrowing but rather because hebrew and arabic are related, i.e. they derive from a common ancestor. those words you mean (bet/bayt, yom/yawm) are inherited from common semitic. Modern Hebrew also borrowed a bit from arabic, swearwords in particular, but not on a large scale.

All that is unrelated to what i meant with "accent" though. The (standard) pronunciation of modern hebrew is strongly influenced by yiddish (which is actually a german dialect, so it sounds a bit like german). you can see that especially in the pronunciation of the r sound which is a throaty German r in modern hebrew where it was a "rolled" tongue-tip r in classical hebrew as it is in arabic. compare an israeli saying rosh ha-shana to an arab saying ra's as-sana and you'll hear the difference.

that sounds false and untrue.

Persia literally said it would raze Arabia to the ground the other week. Why would Shia and Sunni be friends?

Classical Hebrew mostly borrowed from Aramaic, not Arabic, and like the other poster said those two words are likely not borrowed and are in all three. I know for a fact that modern Hebrew speakers recognize some Arabic and even more of Aramaic, just like your case. Talmudic scholars allegedly can understand modern Aramaic as well.

It's definitely possible that the Coptic Church has retained most of the Coptic accent/phonology, although I haven't heard it.

Yeah, Arabs were literally whos until the Greco-Persian wars. They were around, but they were far from the dominant Semitic people, and had little influence

The Old Nubian language also adopted a Greek script through Coptic and also retained a few Demotic letters from Meroitic.

The word Copt comes from Arabic 'qubṭ' which came from the Coptic/Egyptian adapation of Greek 'Aíguptos' (Egypt).

en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Copt
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Egypt#Names
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copts#Etymology

Coptic like Japanese seems to lack a proper demonym for theirselves at least and refer to themselves as 'rem en kemi' which is translated as people of Kemi (Kemet). Kemimen is a more accurate translation into English.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coptic_language#Name

so does that mean that we should be calling them Gyps in english

Also Nubian would be pretty cool but does anyone actually still speak it?

Gypts/Gupts, but even better would be Kemiman/Kemimen, Kemiwoman for the people and Kemian for everything else. To distinguish them from ancient Egyptians those could be called Kemetians or as some have postulated Kumat having been the actual pronunciation. Like the distinction made with the English and the Angles and the French and the Franks etc.

This article explains how 'rwme' which is where 'rem' comes from means man and is used to refer to people and criticizes gender neutral translations of the word.
gospel-thomas.net/noman.htm

There are a few Nubian languages still around.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nubian_languages

I actually studied Middle Eastern (and Islamic) history for my degree, and it's true. Thing is, Arabs dislike each other almost more than their neighbors tend to dislike them. That's why you never call an Iranian or Egyptian an Arab, unless you want to possibly lose teeth.

Well their country is called the Arab Republic of Egypt but there is some truth to the Iranian's claim.

The Egyptian language exists in the form of Coptic. I know some Copts who want to learn it to embrace their heritage. They told me they moved to America because they faced heavy discrimination in Egypt.

Egyptians are proud Arabs , unless you're talking about Copts.

>They told me they moved to America because they faced heavy discrimination in Egypt.
lmao they're literally being bombed in their own churches

Sorry, should've specified (it's been a long day.) I was referring to the Copts. The Arabs did a lot of gene spreading when they conquered the place back in the day.

Evangelization material in modern Kenuzi-Dongola. Words of Life have a lot of videos in obscure languages.
youtu.be/hv0kJltPsS8

Egyptologyfag here

a lot of people mentioned Coptic, that shit went extinct centuries ago. it is still used as a liturgical language in church, but the pronunciation is way off, influenced by Greek and Arabic, and people generally don't understand what they're even saying.

nevertheless, Coptic (first written systematically 3rd century AD) is hugely important to get an idea of the vocalization of the Egyptian language because due to its being written in a modified Greek alphabet, it represents the vowels of the language, unlike the earlier hieroglyphic systems, which only represent the consonantal skeleton of the language.

to work around this issue, Egyptologists mostly just insert -e- as an arbitrary vowel as a purely pragmatic matter, so N-T-R "god" is then written and spoken "Netjer". This method is often misunderstood as being the actual Egyptian pronunciation (it is sometimes used to that effect in movies too), when really, it was pronounced Natjar, then by the New Kingdom Nah-te, and in Coptic Nuh-te. Or the infamous "Kemet", the "black land", was actually Kuh-met, then Kuh-me, then Coptic Keh-me.

Using Coptic, and looking at how other ancient languages such as Akkadian or Greek vocalize Egyptian names and words, linguists can sort of compute backwards in time what Egyptian sounded like approximately at least in Pharaonic times. The dialect of the sand people in the Stargate movie is actually based on that.

bump

>Greek pronunciation must be way off
>when it represents sounds with Greek symbols
>"compute backwards"
>thinking Egyptian must mean Pharaonic era language
>thinking literary Coptic wasn't independent of the spoken tongue centuries before it stopped being spoken

hasn'tthe pronounciation of spoken greek itself changed several times throughout the centuries?

How do we know how anything was pronounced accurately thousands of years ago?

not a linguist but i know that sometimes they'll look for evidence in the writings of grammarians and also in misspellings. for example, in the future, linguists could look at misspellings of the word 'could', written as 'cud' informally, and know that that the diphthong is 'uh' and the L is not pronounced. also modern Greek pronounces 3 different letters the same, eta, upsilon, and iota, are all pronounced as 'ee' as in bee, which intuitively doesn't make sense cus why would they have 3 different letters for the same sound lol.

It seems rather true. R.I.P the persian empire and the glory years of islam

Also how others transcribe words like the Roman transliteration of Greek words e.g. If 'η' was original pronounced like 'i' then why did the Romans transcribe it as 'e' and 'αη' as 'ae'? And also the Greek translations of foreign words.

>N-T-R "god"
Kek.

*it was 'αι' that was transcribed as 'ae' and in modern transliterations is 'ai' but eta is still the same.

It's funny when Egyptian Arabs LARP as Ancient Egyptians but then kill Copts.