Why were Central/South Americans more developed than North Americans by the time of European contact?

Why were Central/South Americans more developed than North Americans by the time of European contact?

because they were the first to arrive in the continent while Native Americans were the latest to arrive before the bering ice bridge melted

What?
They arrived at the same time as they were the same people

?

>Native Americans are the same as Incas, Toltecs, Olmecs, Mayas, Aztecs
No

Yes?
The only difference is that their ancestors have been isolated for some 13000 years.
Also there was another migration from Siberian called the Dene people who mixed with the first natives.

then explain why they were more advanced than the plains niggers. My hypothesis is they had more time to build cities and work the land

There's a reason why there is no such thing as an ancient civilization from Northern Europe.

Southern climates are easy and people in them have more free time to engage in abstract pursuits like architecture.

North America is more Asian mongoloid while the south Aztec and more importantly Incas are of Indo-European decent.The Incas are not Amerindian the ancient Incas had Red/Blonde hair and blue eyes they were also taller and had different bone structure than the Amerindians.

humans first evolved in africa but the first civilizations were in the middle east