When will France apologise for this?

When will France apologise for this?
WHEN

William was 100% german.

he was flemish

For what ? Bringing you civilisation, culture, and your language ?

That's a new one.

>Normans
>french

>people that were at most 1/16th Nordic
>who were vassals to the French kings
>who had adopted French culture, language, religion
>not French

Apologize for not finishing off Anglos? Who knows

not that guy but
>Middle Ages
>anything outside of Île-de-France being "French"

Normandy was its own entity at that time. Neither French or Norse

>Bringing you civilisation, culture, and your language ?

>american education

>anything outside of Île-de-France being
There was no Ile de France back then retard

>Neither French or Norse
They were French deal with it


And let's look at an Ethno-Linguistic which is far more accurate than your shitty feudal frontier

that looks very reliable

>it's a "Langues d'oïl = French in the modern sense" episode
Dumb frogposter

>the English nobility in the 14th/15th century are literally French as they are descended from the Normans who invaded in 1066
>the Norman who invaded England in 1066 are literally Norse because they are descended from Vikings who invaded in 876

Veeky Forums holds both views simultaneously.

>In 190 years norsemen become french, therefore frenchmen invaded england
>but in 400 years frenchmen- literally in the country for twice as long as they were normans- can never become british, therefore the royal family was french in the 1400s

This is what ouiaboos believe.

I don't know about the Normans being Norse but Henry IV and all his successors undoubtedly spoke English as their first language.

Langue d'oil is a fake name

The True name is French, all French dialects form French

Langue d'Oil is literally Old French

The vikings didnt conquer Normandy, that's the main difference
They were offered Normandy in exchange for vassalage after a defeat and adopted their new overlord's culture and language

Meanwhile, the French conquered England in 1066, and thus imposed their language and culture there

the one time the frank get to fuck without having the moneychangers call in a coalition war and they win. Coincidence?

There is a big difference, though. Rollo's men were few in number, and they immediately intermarried and converted. His grandson, the first one to be called duke, was the last one to even have a Norse name, was only 1/8 Norse, and everything points to a thorough integration in native culture, at all levels of society. There was little to no Norse cultural influence on Normandie.

However, after William's conquest of England the nobility that came along and divided up the country did, as far as I know, no effort to integrate into Anglo-Saxon culture and were satisfied to simply lord over the people while in their own little bubble. Their culture eventually trickled down, the mix creating both the English language and culture. And if we're talking about the royal family in particular, you seem to forget that the Norman kings of England didn't last long and were quickly replaced by the Angevins, and you would have a hard arguing that were not French, as they were originally from Anjou, spoke French, and French was the language of their court. I couldn't pinpoint exactly the moment when the Kings of England truly became English, but it was definitely a slow, gradual change, that started at the earliest in the 13th century with the loss of the French Angevin lands.

...

NORMANS GET OUT

Don't us, tell Veeky Forums

It not comparable to the Normans of France, they settled after they concluded a treaty with the French, and most of them came as farmers/settlers.

The Noman conquest was a forceful domination, the English nobles were all replaced by French and the majority of the English were enslaved to serve in the newly created feudal system.

When will Euro-Iranians apologize for THIS?!