How old is the Basque nation?

How old is the Basque nation?

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Depends of how do you define nation. As a separete group in the Iberian different peoples, pretty old (Pre-Roman), Hannibal used Basque mercs, along Cantabrians and Asturians for example.

nation = group of people that shares a national identity

There is no basque nation.
If you are asking since when is the bong-backed basque bourgeoisie fanning nationalistic lies, that would be the 1890s.

You just made a recursive definition, faggot.
Saged.

no I pointed out the definition of nation because nowadays nation tends to be used intertwined with country and/or state when they are different things

Pretty old.

You pointed nothing.
You just said an 'X' is an 'X'.
But if you had been forced to learn a second (and largely made up) language at school then this is no surprise.
If only you started to use your brain and investigate where does this venom come from.

I bet you think there are only classes, commie scum

opinion discarded

Define "National identity"

You're welcome to burn down all your passport, ID card and any "venom" can show your national identity before you're poisoning to death, and leave those which show your 31 imaginary genders behind. You toxic freak.

a sense of belonging in a group with a shared characteristics as traditions, religion, culture, language, ethnicity

So you're asking how old the Basque language is?
Well, all languages are old, they descend from increasingly dissimilar ancestors.

Basques are also an ethnic group with recorded instances before roman conquest

Okay look, there is no answer to this question.
However the earliest culture which has been linked to Basques is the Artenacian.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artenacian_culture

found Francisco

Spain was founded as the Union of christian kingdoms of Iberia, Castillian cultural imperialism in the peninsula only started with the Bourbons

I would put it at 1500 years. In the chaos of the fall of the WRE the Astures, Cantabrii and Vascones managed to gain their independence even from the massive barbarian kingdoms that formed around them. I'd put it to about that time.

> confusing nation with national state

It has never existed

So american, australian, irish, etc. aren't a nation but are all part of the Anglo nation?

Not saying I can't agree.

It actually started with Philip IV of the Habsburgs and more specifically with Olivares. It backfired when literally everyone rebelled and the portuguese became independent.

All those ethnicities existed before the romans stepped into Iberia.

There's a difference between disparate tribal entities and a more unified agglomeration waging constant war to defend themselves from outsiders. Plus, most of them were traditional pagans unlike absolutely everyone around them.

Spain should control the entire Peninsula desu

THE BASQUE TRIBES HAVE LITTLE TO DO WITH THE CURRENT BASQUES.GUIPUZCOA,ALAVA AND VIZCAYA WERE ALWAYS INHABITED BY CANATABRIAN TRIBES.THE CURRENT BASQUES ARE JUST LARPERS.
IF YOU ARE ASKING ABOUT THE BASQUE LARPERS;THEN YOUR ANSWER IS IN THE COUNTY OF CASTILE.THE COUNTY OF CASTILE WAS THE MONTAÑES NATION THAT INVOLVED THE INHABITANTS OF MODERN BURGOS,THE GEOGRAPHIC REGION OF LA RIOJA,ALAVA AND VIZCAYA.THE COUNTY OF CASTILE ALSO INHERITED IBERIAN AND TRIBAL INSTITUTIONS (ANTIIGLESIAS,BEHETRIAS,COMUNIDADES,LEYES DE LIBRE ALBEDRIO,ETC...) THAT WERE THE DIFFERENTIAL IDENTITY AGAINST THE NEOGOTHIC KINGDOM OF LEON.ALAVA AND VIZCAYA NAMED THE COUNT FERNÁN GONZÁLEZ RULER FOR ETERNITY AND THE BUILT A STATUE THAT WOULD RULE THEM AFTER HIS DEATH.THE STATUE WAS BROKEN SO THEY NAMED HIS DESCENDANTS RULERS IN PERPETUITY.
THE LORDSHIP OF VIZCAYA WAS THEN GIVEN TO THE HARO FAMILY DUE THEIR LOYALTY AND THEIR CONSTANT SUCCESS IN THE BEHETRIAN ELECTION MAKING VICAYA A BEHETRIA DE SANGRE.THE HARO FAMILY FOUGHT AGAINST THE FRENCH-NAVARRESE INVASION AND PROCLAIMED THEIR LAND TO BE CASTILLIAN FOR PERPETUITY.
THE MOUNTAIN PEOPLE COLONIZED WHAT WAS THE CASTILLIAN EXTREMADURA (BORDER OF CONFLICT.NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH THE LEONESE EXTREMADURA (CURRENT EXTREMADUR),ARAGONESE EXTREMADURA (MOLINA AND VALENCIA) OR PORTUGUESE EXTREMADURA (ESTREMADURA).
SO IT CAN BE CONCLUDED THAT MODERN SPAIN IS PARTIALLY A "BASQUE" ETHNOSTATE AS THE KINGDOM OF CASTILE BECAME THE DEMOGRAPHIC AND CULTURAL POWERHOUSE OF THE COUNTRY.
ALSO CASTILLIAN IS LATIN SPOKEN BY MOUNTAIN PEOPLE.THE LEONESE NOBILITY OFTEN JOKED ABOUT THIS WHEN THEY CALLED CATILLIANS BASQUES OR VIZCAYAN AS THEY SPOKE WITH A MONTAÑES ACCENT.

...

There are peoples akin to the Basques when the Romans first arrived to Northern Spain/ Southern Iberia and that´s as far as the dcouments can go.

The tribal Vasconic identity seems to reappear in the end of the Roman period to bloom during the first Germanic Realms.

As the time passed the different Basques areas evolved according to the influences that they received from close powers. Franks/Asturians/Moors.
But even when they had different ethnonyms, travelers recognized that they shared a common tongue and customs.

That does not exclude the fighting among them, Basques did not only take part in the Conquest of Navarre, but way before that the border was a pretty unlawfull march, like those of Wales or Scotland and England.

WHAT IS SO HARD TO UNDERSTAND? I CAN HELP YOU TO UNDERSTAND IT BETTER

Que pasa con Riego?

Fue un masón y un hijo de puta

>Basque nation
Little more than 100 years old and it's a meme created by this guy (terrorist and literal cuckhold)

Basque is Iberian
They just skipped romanisation

>Basque is Iberian
BASQUE IS A MADE UP STANDARIZED LANGUAGE (EUSKERA BATUA).THEY SPOKE A BUNCH OF REGIONAL LANGUAGES THAT HAD A COMMON ANCESTOR.JUST LIKE SPANISH,ITALIAN OR FRENCH WITH LATIN.
BUT INDEED THE MOUNTAIN PEOPLE OR MONTAÑESES IN SPANISH SPOKE A PRE-ROMAN LANGUAGE THAT HAD ITS ORIGINS WITH IBERIAN TRIBES OR A CELTIBERIAN MIXTURE

That was tought back in the day, but today that theory lacks enough support, Aquitanian is the only know relative/ancestor of Basque language.

And they did not skip Romanization, they seem to have been part of the Roman Empire like any other for centuries. What may have been diferent for them is the "Germanization".
They fought the Goths and if we check Western Europe the areas in which pre-roman languages are spoken are not always places who were not romanized like Ireland of Scotland but places that were part of the Roman Empire but fought back the first Germanic realms (Wales, Britanny and the Basque area).

>And they did not skip Romanization, they seem to have been part of the Roman Empire like any other for centuries.

I would put a slight caveat on that. The lowland dwellers did heavily Romanize but those that lived in the mountains were still acting as bandits and raiding surrounding cities all the way up until like the 4th century AD. There are gravestones of legions that died fighting the Astures centuries after their so-called pacification by Agrippa in the 1st century BC. It's all about degrees really. The rural peasantry in most of the empire was never particularly Romanised anyway and most parts of the empire still used their first languages like Gaulish and Brythonic.