Were Mycenean Greeks R1a or R1b
Were Mycenean Greeks R1a or R1b
David Gomez
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biorxiv.org
nature.com
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Owen Sullivan
What does it matter?
Cameron Cox
R1a. It was already established.
Andrew Hill
wat
they were of I and J haplogroup
Owen Walker
>That retard who constantly makes threads about haplogroups
i want to beat you up so hard
Chase Gutierrez
Probably R1b since it's more common in Sicily
Adam James
...
Luis Evans
Myceneans were R1a, just like Macedonians of the Alexander times.
Good job on posting Minoans. What you fail to realise is that Greeks are of Indo-European origin, both in culture, language and relgiion. Native population that got "Greek'ed" hardly matters.
Myceneans were also more steppe than Minoans, which indicates their steppe origin.
>Little is known about the arrival of Proto-Greek speakers from the steppes. The Mycenaean culture commenced circa 1650 BCE and is clearly an imported steppe culture. The close relationship between Mycenaean and Proto-Indo-Iranian languages suggest that they split fairly late, some time between 2500 and 2000 BCE. Archeologically, Mycenaean chariots, spearheads, daggers and other bronze objects show striking similarities with the Seima-Turbino culture (c. 1900-1600 BCE) of the northern Russian forest-steppes, known for the great mobility of its nomadic warriors (Seima-Turbino sites were found as far away as Mongolia). It is therefore likely that the Mycenaean descended from Russia to Greece between 1900 and 1650 BCE, where they intermingled with the locals to create a new unique Greek culture.
Austin Kelly
biorxiv.org
They were J2 and G.
Zachary Morris
Why don't Sicilians have R1a then?
Jayden Russell
>Why don't Sicilians have R1a then?
They do. Germanic/Slavic/Iranic subclades though :^)
Matthew Richardson
Robert Rivera
Mycenaean Greece Apatheia nr Galatas [Galatas4 / I9041] M 1500-1200 BCE 417898 J2a1
Carter Baker
Few samples don't mean anything.
Chase Howard
If you read the first article that I posted, you will see that the Steppe pulse with R1a, reached Bulgaria just around 1500BC, which is too late for the Mycenaeans. They already formed as a group.
The second article deals with them, and we see continuity from the Minoans in autosomal and paternal/maternal dna. R1a came with the Dorians or the Slavs, but since all subclades are found in Slavic countries, then its more plausible to be from the slavs.
Josiah Johnson
How did Indo-European culture and language reach Greece then?
Gavin Sullivan
But Myc had 10-20% steppe admixture compared to Minoans
I2-Slavo-Dinaric is the Slav gene really. Goths also spread some of these R1a subclades.
Justin Hughes
They had increase in CHG, but not in EHG. Both must be presented for steppe ancestry. Or if you don't agree with this, the graves of a noble woman and simple peasant had the same admixture, thus no ruling IE-elite. Even if there was some steppe in them, it was too low to IE-style invasion.
How can you say such stupidity? There is less than 10% I2a1b in Russia or Poland and more than 60% R1a. By your logic, they are not Slavic.
R1a is the Indo-European that spreads the language. You observe the same in Asia and India - wherever there is R1a(z93) there is a an IE language.
Dorians or the old Out-of-Anatolia theory.
Carter Rivera
Minoans had 20% admixture CHG compared to Neolithic Greeks.
Mycs had about 5% EHG which can mean anywhere between 10% and 20% steppe admixture.
It's all the Lazaridis paper.
Andrew Moore
I2-Slavo-Dinaric is exclusive to Slavs though.
I'm sure there's some R1a subclades which are equally exclusive but many others are much older and pre-Slavic.
Wyatt Torres
>Out-of-Anatolia theory.
>steppe
lol