The Indo-European/Aryan theory in a nutshell

The Indo-European/Aryan theory in a nutshell.

One day 5000 years ago. People living north of the Black Sea suffered a mutation causing Haplogroup R1a, R1b, and blue eyes. They were the first "Aryans". They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism) at the same time. Using their superior genes they were able to domesticate horses and build chariots. After doing this they decided to spread out in every direction killing the native men of Europe, India, and Iran and raping their women and spreading their language. For some reason the Basque people were spared even though they have Haplogroup R1b. There's no archaeological evidence for any of this. Just speculation on the part of "linguists".

Yeah it's borderline science fiction.

>too stupid to understand a simple and well-supported theory

Sad!

Indo-Europeans were meritocratic whereas most people were nepotistic.

hello there. i will genocide your entire male population and fuck your women.

>Yeah it's borderline science fiction.
Until the Neolithic Period, Europe was mainly inhabited by G and I haplogroup carriers, then around the Late Neolithic Period, Europe became inhabited by R1alphas and R1bosses this period match the theorized spread of the IE language, as well as the apparition of the Corded Ware Culture and the Bell Beakers Culture.

>entire

That's more of an R1b thing I'd say

great post.

how can the world compete with R1alphas and R1bulls?

poland was mostly l1 and l2 before IE. now it's literally r1a dominated

Iron age Poland had I1 and G and only 1/16 R1a

But yes, R1a is common in Poland but it's still only about 50%

>claim to be native Europeans who've lived there for 40,000 years
>claim to be Indo-Europeans who've been in Europe for only 3000 years

Why do white people do this?

>suffered a mutation
>using their superior genes

fuck you've got it all wrong and backwards. they had superior genes because of their worldview. but how can i make moderns understand this.

Exactly. You can't be both the native people and the invaders at the same time. Pick one.

>ukraine isn't europe

that could've been caused by east germanic immigrants pushing out r1a lusatian natives east into what became milograd culture

i'm too fucking drunk to post, so yeah whatever. going to work soon lmao

just so you know frenchie, i don't personally hate you, i just like to troll you. xoxo

Maternally Native European
Paternally Indo-European

Europe starts and ends at the Pyrenees
Only Andorra is European

Nah, the I1 subclade was non-Scandinavian.

They were indigenous people with some remote ancestors from NW Europe who came there thousands of years before Germanics existed as a distinct group from other IE, around the end of the Corded Ware era.

What is it about White people that triggers the fuck out of Veeky Forums to the point where they're trying to retcon European history?

>Nah, the I1 subclade was non-Scandinavian.
i remeber reading that it was specific for vistula, it might've been pre-germanic people with l1, the same that lived in hungary

>They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism) at the same time.
Are you retarded?

source?

Put xenoestrogens and fluoride in their water

they did not have chariots you absolute moron

>was mainly inhabited by G and I haplogroup carriers,
So extra strength Armenians, Balkanars and Scandinavians?
Weird continent.

How were the Proto-Indo-Iranians that branched off from Indo-Europeans able to so successfully overtake most of Central Asia, the Steppes, and the Iranian Plateau so that their Indo-Iranian successors would dominate it so heavily?

>They also practiced both polytheism (Hinduism) and monotheism (Zoroastrianism) at the same time.
Well at least you tried

Zoroastrianism didn't even fucking exist yet. Oldest likely sources for Zoroaster/Zoroastrianism existing stems as far back as between 1800 to 1500 BCE. No way did it exist as we know it by the Sassanian era in 5000 BC.

Except you're the moron, that's literally the technology that enabled them to expand.You see how fucking FAR they went? You see how many of those areas in the south were densely populated kingdoms, full of warriors? Even wonder HOW they BTFO of them so hard?

>suffered a mutation causing Haplogroup R1a, R1b, and blue eyes

>a mutation

>one mutation

WE WUZ CHINKZ N SHIT

That's the spread of the chariot as a technology, you retard.

So exactly as mixed as any humans ever were.

>subclade

For a haplogroup?

>So exactly as mixed as any humans ever were.

There are four races in Europe. Now compare that to China(half a dozen), India (several dozen), or Africa (literally thousands). Only the Americas had lower "native" genetic diversity than Europe.

How is that measured?

>inb4 haplogroups

Measure of GEOGRAPHIC distance.

Hinduism is monotheistic.

By genetics, not just haplogroups, and by archeology.

They didnt bring chariots when They invaded Britain or Ireland

What are you talking about? Yes of course they did.

>There's no archaeological evidence for any of this

>Indo-Europeans killed all the native men in different continents
>They are now getting outbred out of existence by brown and black people

Sweet karma

>Indo-Europeans killed all the native men in different continents

If thats true why are indians brown?

Because they fucked their women obviously

Because they have been outbred by dravidians. India used to be an economic giant and a cultural centre of the ancient world until africanoids of south india started to move north and outbreed the fair skinned aryans. India is a look into the future for white people, a stark reminder of the dangers of mass miscegenation.

>created every great civilisation of the ancient world before settling in northern europe where they then decided to do nothing and live in mud huts for 1000 years
makes sense i guess. must have been tiring.

how do you explain the harappan civilization then? Pre-indo aryan india was still an economic giant.

...

my ancestors :)