Riddle diddle me thiz

just don't reply

x = y + 1.00
x + y = 1.10
(y + 1.00) + y = 1.10
2y + 1.00 = 1.10
2y = 0.10
y = 0.05

sorry, I don't speak NERD

>he had to do the working

>why

Impossible the ball would have to cost negative money

>lol he knows how to do 7th grade algebra
>NERRRRRD

>he took the time to do 7th grade algebra on a Czechoslovakian tractor repair advice webnet discussion forum
>he thinks he is smart because of this

ball = 0.1
bat= 1.0
bat+ball=1.1

Let the price of the ball be X.

The bat costs 1$ more than the ball so:
(x+1)+x = $1.10
In the parantheses is the cost of the bat.
We can simplify it to the following:
1+2x = 1.10$
Remove the 1 from each side
2x = 0.10$
Then devide both sides by 2:
x = 0.05$
So the ball is 0.05$, as x was defined as the price of the ball

what is with this capitalist problems?!

clearly both implements are provided by the party free of charge