developed exclusively in Europe
i mean centuries before the Arabic World, India, China were ahead and then comes Copernicus, Galileo and Newton and the entire scale changes where Europe starts to dominate those fields...
in before any "whites are superior" genetic nonsense
what were the main reasons that Europe "won"
Age of Enlightenment + Renaissance. Also heavy emphasis on astrology during the ancient Greek/Roman rule which required sophisticated mathematics to predict planetary motion, while there were no incentive to pursue science and mathematics outside of war and economics in other parts of the world.
the printing press
Formal math that is mathematical proof and actually demonstrsting theorems was invented by Greeks AKA Europeans in the 7th century bc
didn't the Egyptians have math before the greeks though?
before the dominician Retard storms in: Yes the Babylonians and Egyptians had some knowledge of geometry and equations but they had no concept of mathematical proof or axioms so they never denonstrated any theorem
Autist werent given a way to speak unless they lived in Europe.
That’s not what I said, read
The concept of proof was pioneered by Euclid and popularized by Archimedes.
Yes but they only did empirical math. For instance they noted some examples Pythagorean triples by drawing triangles on the ground, while Euclid proved their existence with formal deduction and ruler/compass constructions, with only quill and parchment.
There's a distinct line between the two: empirical mathematics isn't nearly as powerful and general as formal mathematics; one can argue (as most mathematicians do) that the former isn't actually "math". In fact much of the mathematics during Euler and Lagrange's time (18-19th century) was still done with mostly abductive arguments instead of deductive ones, until people like Dirichlet and Weierstrass really formalized them in the late 19th century. One can even argue that what Euler did wasn't really mathematics either.
Europe dominated math from 650 bc (Thales) to the fall of the WRE (Diofantes) then India and the arabic world did some progress while europeans were in the dark age, during the late middle age starting with mathematicians like Fibonacci and with the birth of universities in Italy Europeans quickly regained the upperhand in mathematics
It was not pioneered by Euclides, it was pinoreed by Thales several centuries before, Euclides has the merit of creating Euclidian geometry with his axioms
That depends on what your concept of a "proof" is. If you accept ancients noting patterns and jotting down examples as "proof" then that's your problem.
Thales demonstrated the theorem:
“but tradition attributes to Thales a demonstration of the theorem. It is for this reason that Thales is often hailed as the father of the deductive organization of mathematics and as the first true mathematician. Thales is also thought to be the earliest known man in history to whom specific mathematical discoveries have been attributed.”
>There is nothing extant of the writing of Thales; work done in ancient Greece tended to be attributed to men of wisdom without respect to all the individuals involved in any particular intellectual constructions — this is true of Pythagoras especially. Attribution did tend to occur at a later time.
Big if true, but these are still nothing more than second hand accounts.
From wikipedia:
The development of mathematical proof is primarily the product of ancient Greek mathematics, and one of the greatest achievements thereof. Thales (624–546 BCE) and Hippocrates of Chios (c470-410 BCE) proved some theorems in geometry. Eudoxus (408–355 BCE) and Theaetetus (417–369 BCE) formulated theorems but did not prove them. Aristotle (384–322 BCE) said definitions should describe the concept being defined in terms of other concepts already known. Mathematical proofs were revolutionized by Euclid (300 BCE), who introduced the axiomatic method still in use today, starting with undefined terms and axioms (propositions regarding the undefined terms assumed to be self-evidently true from the Greek "axios" meaning "something worthy"), and used these to prove theorems using deductive logic. His book, the Elements, was read by anyone who was considered educated in the West until the middle of the 20th century.[9] In addition to theorems of geometry, such as the Pythagorean theorem, the Elements also covers number theory, including a proof that the square root of two is irrational and that there are infinitely many prime numbers.
>Mathematical proofs were revolutionized by Euclid (300 BCE), who introduced the axiomatic method still in use today,
Thanks for proving my point, sweetie.
>Europe "won"
in the short term, but you're reverting back to your primitive roots
Euclides came up with axioms first but other Greek mathematicians before him already used to Demonstrate their theoremes which is something no civilization before them did, either way either Thales, Hippocrates, Pythagora or Euclides the Greeks were the first to demonstrate theorems and Chinese never did it until they learned about Western math
Exactly. The first books of Euclid were almost certainly NOT Euclid. Various other mathematicians, namely Pythagoras and Eudoxus.
A necessary condition for a deductive argument to be considered a proof must have the structure pioneered by Euclid.
I didn't say that Euclid came up with the theorems first. I said Euclid was the first one who established what "proof" means "contemporarily".
>in before any "whites are superior" genetic nonsense
Emotions aside, why would that be nonsense?
I'm sure you'd be happy recognising that chimpanzees have relatively low intellectual faculties and that's the main reason that Homo-sapien "won"; why is it so hard for you to consider intraspecial variation is a factor when it demonstrably is.
Europe has, for all of history (unless you are going very far back), lead the world in Maths and Science, the Ancient Greeks bought academia to a respectable zenith which was only surpassed again in Europe because of the likes of Newton, Euler and Leibniz.
It's not that Europe ceased to be "ahead", it's just that in the period we once called the dark-ages advances where peace-meal and rare.
Read up on the history of Mathematics, contrary to what we're now being told, even in the days on Newton, translated Arabic texts were only valued for what they said about the Greeks.
Europe was heavily decentralized where as those other regions were not. Europe lagged behind after the fall of the WRE resulting in the splintering of Europe into dozens of competing powers. After centuries of this competition those powers eventually found their footing and developed key advantages because they were necessary for their survival. Competition breeds advancement since to be complacent means extermination.
This, plus dumb luck. The philosophical underpinnings of the scientific method and the realization of the power of market forces were the product of chance insights that were able to build upon one another due to the printing press.
Also, widespread literacy and mandatory literacy due to religious wars and the need to read the Bible in order to protect yourself from Popery.
Whites are superior.
Thales went to Egypt to learn from the priests
so why the origin of the mathematical proof came from a Greek man
what do we have to say about him going to Egypt to receive wisdom?
so?
Einstein's high school teacher doesn't get credit for general relativity
Far as we can tell, its mainly due to abundance of free time created by industrialization of economics(those are caused by other factors like naturalization of science/exploration/exploitations).
Normal progress of mathematics took a long period of time to stabalize. The modern explosive growth of every bit of knowledge based industry is due to our strong specialized economies. This allowed us to focus on previously unaffordable careers.