Why did it fail?

Why did it fail?

Pic related (Poland-Lithuania)

It got gang-raped from all sides

Damn ruskies

and judeokrauts
and germanized slavmutts

Economic decline of middle and petty nobility (i.e. middle to small free land-owners, nobility in Poland was really numerous) and concurrent rise of magnates.

The nobility was the bulk of soldiers and taxpayers and was interested in a functional state to protect their interest.

The magnates were the most powerful nobles, essentially owners of states within the state. They had no interest in maintaining a functional state that would supervise them and wrecked it completely.

They never let a hapsburg get elected

Should have said the completely flawed system of all the children of a noble being nobles, as such the vote exponentially grew and so did corruption

But that wasn't the problem. The population growth wasn't that staggering, that was still a pre-industrial society. The nobility wasn't ruined by overpopulation, it was ruined by war. Actually, the decline of PLC is concurrent with demographic regression on nearly all levels due to wartime destruction and disruption.

The wars of 17th and early 18th centuries had a disproportional effect on the petty and middle nobles. They served in the military (and died) and paid heavy taxes, while the magnates always found the way to wiggle out of their obligations. When foreign armies (like Swedes or Russians) invaded, it was the nobles' estates that got plundered and ruined. Magnates were powerful and rich enough to bribe the commanding generals to avoid his lands or even bargain some form of cooperation.

>he didn’t bribe the swedes to make him grand duke of Lithuania
You’re basically a pleb

Pacta Conventa & The Henrykian Articles, Nihil novi nisi commune consensu, to put it simply the Nobility had too much power

Nope. This meme must die. The idea that Poland fell because the king was weak and nobility powerful was just propaganda of the power that partitioned Poland, all of whom happened to be absolutist monarchies. Because that was the only version of history that was permitted to circulate, it become deeply ingrained in Polish mindset despite being fundamentally untrue.

source.

Lmao you know Poland had the biggest concentration of Jews in europe

You need source for what? There were countries in Europe where monarchic power was weak. For example England and Netherlands. Netherlands had even more convoluted internal structure than Poland-Lithuania and yes also required unanimity to get things done. None of them collapsed like PLC, in fact they turned out to be quite functional. Therefore it's very safe to assume that weak monarchic power is not the cause for PLC's decline and fall. Other factors were involved.

P****s sabotaged the thing. Lithuania was better when it was pure.

>P****s sabotaged the thing. Lithuania was better when it was pure.

You mean better in bending over and letting the Muscovy in. Poland had to prop up Lithuania and the whole Union thing happened at all because the childless Sigmund II Augustus knew that Lithuania is gone if Poland goes its own way.

>childless Pole Sigismund fucks over superior Lithuanians with his sabotage

Just as I said.

>Lithuanians
You mean Ruthenians

No I mean Lithuanians. That spoke Lithuanian.

Allying B*ltoids instead of southern bros for a start.

>it's very safe to assume that weak monarchic power is not the cause for PLC's decline and fall
who the fuck was ruling the country then if it wasn't the nobles or the king

lmao you know Jews are culturally German

>who the fuck was ruling the country then if it wasn't the nobles or the king

Petty nobles and burghers.

>England has a lax monarchy because the one that tried to reform the monarchy into something more absolutist got executed
Stadtholderless period ends because the mob demanded a monarchy after the nobles failed to appease France

Except it’s former not later
Also if Lithuania got annexed then Poland is that much weaker with their buffer gone

>Stadtholderless period ends because the mob demanded a monarchy after the nobles failed to appease France

Still, Netherlands never had absolute monarchy. That's.the.point.

Except it did, but was at one point overthrown
Sweden also went lax, to absolutist, to peasant republic, to absolutist

Would make more sense if it said "Slavs don't hate the Germans, we hate them for being Jews". But whatever.

Because of decentralization and traitors followed by being surrounded by greedy enemies.

that makes no sense bro

The nobility had too much power and used that power mostly to further their own wealth and power, which is part of the reason why they didn't develop a more modern army like their neighbours Sweden and even Russia (because this modern army would have been the king's army and it would have meant creating an army of commoners). The PLC was so decentralised that it was difficult to get one part of the commonwealth to help the other in defence against foreign invasion. The Khelmnytsky uprising, which basically began the decline of the PLC, was also dependent on the oppression and exploitation by the nobility.

But hey, at least they made for nice cavalry.

The English Parliament only required a plurality instead of unanimity. In times of crisis, Parliament could still act, and MP's beholden to foreign powers could be voted out, where as being Szlachta was hereditary.

What makes no sense? The Germans acted like complete Jews.

Absolute brainlet

Jews acted like complete Germans though