Who was in the wrong here?

Who was in the wrong here?

Hijacking this thread to ask, how and why did European powers transition from trading slaves, gold, ect with African kingdoms to full on colonial administration? Is the former not more profitable in the long run?

The native population.

...

Once assembly lines and factories became a thing, it became cheaper to just pay people a wage than to own them and have to pay for there food, wat,er shelter and making sure they don't escape. Once this was a reality, people began abolishing slavery over morality or some shit. Then it was just a matter of empires having tons of people and potential for massive industry but not having the land and resources to support it, and low and behold there was a continent right to their South ripe with unclaimed resources ready for the taking.

Ethiopia

Belgium's Leopold II.

ONE DAY......

It wasn't until europeans technology became advanced enough could they exploit africa effectively

Conquering large swaths of Africa wasn't economically and logistically viable prior to quinine and the Maxim Gun.

how do you expect israel to accept this

if you dont know who then just assume its either germans or brits

KARA BOGA

The French for not creating a United French colony nation

wh*Toids

Historylet here, why were south American nations able to consolidate and rise out of colonialism but African ones weren't?

The belgians
They were it just happened later because they were colonized later
The leader of the communist revolution that destroyed Rhodesia is still alive today

You dont even have to pay people a proper wage lol. Just a wage and that's good enough to not be "slavery".

Almost always France.

The niggers.

S T E A M E N G I N E