Wtf the House of Hanover was also German?

>York and lancastrians are French
They're cadet branches of the Plantagenet house

>Norman’s aren’t Norman rather than Parisian ‘french’
Normans are called "Franco-Danish" on the pic
That's literally what they were, a mix of French and Danish

If you're English, you really should already know this

>Just how German influenced was British history?
Besides a few quickly assimilated kings? Not at all, basically.

>That's literally what they were, a mix of French and Danish
Indeed, most of the Scandinavians settlers in Normandy were Anglo-Danes. Still, Cotentin was settled by Hiberno-Norwegians. Regarding Rollo, it is known that he lead a Danish warband, but is there still a controversy regarding his ancestry (Danish or Norwegian) ?

Yeah and you know why they’re called lancastrians because it was the king’s son marrying the heir to the Duchy of Lancaster
>franco-danish
You should have used Franko-Norse, otherwise you’re implying they’re French and danish from the modern era which seeing as the ‘early’ part of the modern era is 1600 then a few hundred years out

>danish or Norwegian
Do you mean to imply there were distinct nationalities back then? That’s more retarded than claiming Charlemagne is the national hero of France rather than Louis XIV, Napoleon or Charles de gaulle

>German influenced
From the house of Hannover?
Zero
They quickly assimilated, not the other way round.
The house of Hannover originates from the house of Este which originated in Italy, so by your logic the queen is Italian.

>Do you mean to imply there were distinct nationalities back then
No, I was thinking about the location, more to nationality itself. BTW, were'nt Danes and Norses different on a linguistical scale, at least to an extent ?

*Not to nationality itself

...

>Harold Godwinson
>English

>none
What are you talking about, whilst there was a promise for the George’s to not intervene England in their petty wars, the kings ‘German Legion’ slightly changed tactics
The closeness to Prussia and napeoloen invading Hannover definetly affected foreign policy

>Norse
The ones on the foreskin of Norway would be similar due to closeness and traditional trade routes but the interior and more northern ones would be different but possibly mutually intelligible

Ok thx

The rest of it is memes so why care
These retards thinking English and French identities have existed for 2000 years but don’t think trojans founded both Paris and London

It’s just common sense man
The Germanics in 0AD got an alphabet due to trade with first the Romans on the frontiers then with themselves on the interior
It’s just like spread of Islam among the spice islands

>Indeed, most of the Scandinavians settlers in Normandy were Anglo-Danes.
>Anglo

Lmao

I know about the kings German legion I just don't don't think it's a big deal in British history.
Yeah point granted about Hannover but they were already in conflict with revolutionary France before it got invaded.

>You should have used Franko-Norse, otherwise you’re implying they’re French and danish from the modern era which seeing as the ‘early’ part of the modern era is 1600 then a few hundred years out

No, you absolute retard
Using the term "Frank" post-9th century is pure retardation
At that point there were no "Franks" anymore, there were the French on the West and the Germans on the East

And Danish identity exists since the 6th century

If you apply this faggy logic even after assimilation you may as well call them all African.
Henry III up until James I were assimilated English
Charles I up to James II were assimilated English
Queen Anne was assimilated English
George III up until Elizabeth II was assimilated English
This isn't difficult to understand and pretty much everyone but revisionists see it this way.
This is based upon linguistics, place of origin, where they lived and culture

I meant up until Elizabeth I, not James I

Not to mention the fact that, genetically, they're mostly just European Royalty, its own ethnic group, which applies to nearly all other major European royal houses.

Angles

>Germans on the east
You atill have the kingdom of Provence so no

In case you haven't noticed, pic isn't about individuals but rather about Houses

Also
>Henry III
>assimilated English

No, the first post-1066 King to speak English natively was Henry IV (1399-1413)

>I hav not one drop of my blood that is not Aenglish
Who said this tho

No he was the first to use it in his coronation speech

English kings from Richard I onwards had an understanding of English. Henry III spoke it fluently and likely only used French for formal occassions.
Henry was also born in England to a father born in England, both of whom lived and died in England and by then the nobility (and royalty by henry III) had become culturally disparate to their continental counterparts.

>English kings from Richard I onwards had an understanding of English.
Richard factually couldn't speak English

>Henry III spoke it fluently and likely only used French for formal occassions.
Citation needed
Even if he know English, it's more likely he very rarely used it, since French was both his native language and the official language of the court

Pray tell us please

Welf dynasty adopted Angevin lions passant as their heraldic charge after the marriage between Henry the Lion and Mathilde (daughter of Henry II of England and Alienor of Aquitaine)

>Richard factually couldn't speak English
This is a common misconception. Richard I was raised by an English wet nurse from St Albans for about 8 years alongside an English 'brother'. While he was indeed educated in Latin and Occitan preferring to write in Occitan, it's likely he naturally learned some English growing up.
Furthermore he fired his chancellor William Longchamp on the grounds that he was incapable of speaking English.
It's also important to remember that all the Angecin kings claimed legitimacy through Alfred the great who was their ancestor through Henry II's mother.
Henry III for example adopted Edward the confessor (his ancestor) as his patron saint.
While indeed French was the language of the court, this was a convenient formality and to incorporate continental subjects.
This is less indicative of nationality as monks would use latin, but weren't Roman.
More significant is place of birth, how they are tied to that location and their culture. From Henry III onwards the monarchs had developed differences from the continent in a similar way to the difference between US colonists and England.

George II I believe. In a heavy German accent.

>This is a common misconception. Richard I was raised by an English wet nurse from St Albans for about 8 years alongside an English 'brother'. While he was indeed educated in Latin and Occitan preferring to write in Occitan, it's likely he naturally learned some English growing up.
Every source about him says he spoke French, Occitan and Latin but couldn't speak English
At most he'd know some words but I couldn't have a conversation in it

>Furthermore he fired his chancellor William Longchamp on the grounds that he was incapable of speaking English.
Stop spamming this shit in every thread as if it proved anything, you literal autist
He fired him because knowing English was required for his fucking job (literally dealing with the local English scum in the stead of the king)
But the fact someone as low as a chancellor thought it was ok not to bother learning English is enough to understand that the king and the high nobles sure didn't either

>The Tudors are Welsh
>The Stewarts aren't Breton
What's with the double standard? Or are you just retarded?

George II

Yep that’s why an e is missing on have and English has an extra e
Real talk what do the Germans call he English
I know France calls Germany ‘Allemagne’

>Stewart’s
It’s stuarts and they were ‘lowland Scottish which was basically English

Wrong on all counts

>Stop spamming this shit in every thread as if it proved anything, you literal autist
I'm only quoting wikipedia pal, up to you to decide but whatever.
>local English scum
You seem heavily biased so i doubt i can convince you otherwise
>someone as low as a chancellor
Literally inly outranked by Justiciar

we still don't know where he came from. "normaund" however sounds awfully close to what norwegians are called in modern scandinavian languages (nordmann/ nordmand/ normänn)

>being invaded by hordes of germanics, effectively replacing the indigenous population
>speaking a germanic language
>being even named after a tribe from northern germany
>being ruled by german nobility even until this very day

>Not at all, basically

Edward I spoke English as a first language because Henry III was a complete Angloboo with a hard-on for Edward the Confessor hence the name he chose for his son which was unheard of for a regnal name since 1066.

>because Henry III was a complete Angloboo with a hard-on for Edward the Confessor hence the name he chose for his son which was unheard of for a regnal name since 1066.

Doesn't mean shit tho
Tons of modern Americans LARP as Germans, yet they don't speak any of it

Henry IV is recorded as the first Plantagenet king to speak English natively

Bede described an English identity as early as the 8th century AD

Well assimilation is a gradual process. But you can perhaps mark Henry III and definitely Edward I as a turning point from where they began to see themselves and English King rather than just a King of England, not least because of their losses of their ancestral land assets in France.

>tfw Scottish nobility spoke English before the English nobility started

The Stewart’s descend from a Breton who came to England in 1066, Mary Queen of Scots changed the name to Stuart whilst staying in France.