Northern Aryans

Why exactly did the "northern Aryan" theory get thrown away? Was there reason for it or was it another casualty of "muh nazis"?

Why is God so evil to me

You touch yourself at night.

fair enough

Because it's not based on any facts.

Fair enough, but where are the fact against it? I'm just looking for some kind of source on this matter that will give the arguments for both.

The one book on Greece I have now merely mentions the Aryan theory and says that it's wrong without explaining WHY it's wrong. It just doesn't like it because muh nazis

alexander was blonde with blue eyes

>The one book on Greece I have now merely mentions the Aryan theory and says that it's wrong without explaining WHY it's wrong. It just doesn't like it because muh nazis
What exactly does it say?

Just read about Indo-Europeans and all the recent genetic research.

Certain Hunter-Gatherers from Europe before the IE migration were also blondes with blue eyes. In fact, most Indo-Europeans didn't have blue eyes or blond hair which developed later.

literally no, they were olive skinned, brown eyed folk

Because the aryan language roots are traceable to noneuropean place of origin

WE

fuck, I meant achilles, my bad

Yamna, yes, but later Corded Ware developed lighter skin and blue eyes.

Having trouble finding it right now, but it was essentially "(on where Greeks came from)- Originally people thought they came from Aryans up north which led to tragedies in the 20th century, which have now been disproved" but doesn't say how they've been disproved.

>prove a negative

Greeks were Indo-Europeans. Where they came from? It's hard to tell, probably from the North, but it's unlikely that most of them were blue-eyed and blond-haired. But it seems like Mycenaeans mixed with the local populations very fast because genetically they are very similar to Minoans. But it's possible that elites had more steppe admixture.

Okay, fair enough. I just didn't feel comfortable leaving my knowledge at "the nazis believed X so it has to be wrong"

its based on the indo-european family languages. Thats normally considered to be fact. The term aryan isn't exactly accurate to designate all indo-europeans, but what you're saying is misleading.
To answer your question OP I'd say yes, most important factor in these concepts and terms vanishing is WW2. But there was also a lot of bullshit written about aryans.
In the current year most universities don't really offer anything in the way of indo-european studies. There are things you can study about it, but you have to be rich to be able to afford it.
I would say its not long before all of it is completey shelved along with pretty much all european history, once the demographics shift to a muslim/middle eastern majority in europe, which is already unpreventable.
Maybe the iranians and kurds will be interested in it, but I just can't buy into the prospect of an mainly arab europe showing any real interest in european history. Already in sweden its being shelved and artefacts are being melted down.

The Nazis were wrong about pretty much everything. Originally the Indo-Europeans ("Aryans") came from the Pontic-Caspian steppe. The cultures that lived there are ancestors to all later Indo-European groups, including the Greeks.

your standards are higher then most tenured professors

>Posting Med olivewashing propaganda

>Originally people thought they came from Aryans up north which led to tragedies in the 20th century
which? No don't tell me. You think the theory aryans originated in northern europe actually led to the holocaust.

Nordicism is not based on facts.

Your second point is completely wrong. Indo-European studies are now more popular than ever, due to genetic research done on ancient populations. There are new articles released in Nature or other highly respected scientific journals every month.

The Horse, the Wheel, and Language: How Bronze-Age Riders from the Eurasian Steppes Shaped the Modern World was very warmly received.

That's what they were implying, which is why I was skeptical about it. I'm so done with the "muh nazis" shit.

Mycenaeans were only Indo-European in language, likely due to an invasion that displaced the nobility. Literally only a smidge of steppe DNA separated them from Minoans. The only elite Mycenaean DNA we had even proved they weren't very different from the common folk.
That's like saying an African is no longer African because he speaks English.

Where is this from?

Indo-European is a language family.

>The only elite Mycenaean DNA we had even proved they weren't very different from the common folk.
This was a woman, though.

I honestly don't care who they were, but I wouldn't be surprised if they found some (many?) R1b among Mycenaean elites. I'm genuinely curious if all those myths about elite IE rulers and local non-IE people are true.

Macedonia

>Macedonia
Too vague.

Was he as white as a lion?

I think you're misunderstanding what I'm saying. For the current generation of learners at the college level, their options are very limited and its very costly to study what is on offer. Of course you're away that many of the scholars responsible for the work you're referring to, come from wealthy and privelaged backgrounds.

>Nordicism is not based on facts.
It was at the time. And really, it depends what you mean by nordicism. I don't think you actually know the breadth of what the term nordicism encompasses.

>Indo-European is a language family.
I thought you were the Indo-"Germanisch" lad.
>This was a woman, though.
Fair enough.
>but I wouldn't be surprised if they found some (many?) R1b among Mycenaean elites
It would depend, I imagine. R1b peaks it's highest in south and east Greece, but R1a is highest in the north. Island Greeks have more R1b and J2. It is likely that R1b came to Greece via later migrations from western Asia due to where R1b is estimated to have first originated from.