WHAT NOW?

W-what now, Veeky Forums?

I tried to calculate it on my own and I failed.

And now Wolfram failed.

What am I even supposed to do in this situation?

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Chances are, there's no analytical solution to this.

It means no function can describe it. If you really want an anti derivative solution you need to define it and study it's properties.

You can use Riemann sums to an arbitrary number( use a shitton for better accuracy)
or put it into mathematica or whatever program you wan to use.

That's fucked up because it's on my textbook and you're supposed to do it with U Substitution. And no, they do not give away the answer.

I couldn't crack it. I could be possible that it's an error with the textbook, but maybe we both just suck at basic calculus?

you sure you copied that one right? Cot instead of Tan or Cos instead of Sin and it would be peaches.

Straight from it. I don't even know anymore. I checked more recent versions and they haven't changed it.

Use Implicit Integration.
you all suck

OP said U substitution, so i tried that.

That shit is not even differentiable, it's asymptotic at pi/2+pi*n