How can pi be infinite if the circumference of a circle is finite?

How can pi be infinite if the circumference of a circle is finite?

Same thing with a right angled triangle with two sides of 1, it has a hypotenuse of sqrt(2) which is infinite but the actual side is finite

pi is irrational not infinite, 0>pi>4, so pi is finite.

Because of its infinite resolution.

How can pi be infinite when it is less than four?

0.999... Is infinite too

What precisely is an angle??

The problem is that defining an angle correctly requires calculus. This is a point
implicit in Archimedes’ derivation of the length of the circumference of a circle, using
an infinite sequence of successively refined approximations with regular polygons. It is
also supported by the fact that The Elements [Euclid] does not try to measure angles,
with the exception of right angles and some related special cases. Further evidence can
be found in the universal reluctance of traditional texts to spell out a clear definition of
this supposedly ‘basic’ concept.

.999... =1, so 1 is also infinite

Actually this is how we prove 0.999...=1.

Prop 1: 0.999... is infinite
Prop 2: 1=1.000..., ergo 1 is infinite

We know that infinite quantities equal each other, so 0.999...=1.

Checkmate atheists

By your logic 1=1.00000....0001 then you can further that forever until you reach 1 = infinity.