He uses Leibniz notation

>He uses Leibniz notation

Hahahahahaha

Leibniz notation is used so that people can use the chain rule without proper consideration or to change between integral and diff equations using d*fferentials.

Whom are you quoting?

I used to love Leibnitz notation until I found out dipshit physicists actually treat it as a quotient and say "dy over dx" instead of "the derivative of y with respect to x".

...

>he uses ZFC

Anyone with self respect hates differentials.

>He doesn't use his own made-up differential notation that nobody else understands

\tilde{f}_x

>thinking maths is about notation
You're probably a tauist

It is a quotient though. Its just the limit of a quotient.

Richard Feynman actually did this, along with sine and cosine.

>not using Lebiniz, Euler, Larange, and Newton's notation all interchangeably within the same paper.

>He gives a shit about one bland notation over another

Had a hearty laugh in class

i learned calculus through Morris Kline's book, which uses the symbols interchangeably to get you accustomed to the different notations. by the end of the book i often found myself using Lebiniz notation when presenting a solution, but Larange when presenting a operation.

i still do this sometimes.

until he learned that standardized notation was a useful thing and then he conformed because he was a practical fellow

I own that book

Morris Kline is the dude I recommend it to everyone

Is there any other notation?
Wtf

>tfw lagrange and newton(if you are doing applied stuff that depend on time)
If you use leibniz you are 100% autistic

>*blocks your path*

>It is A though. Its just B.

who are you quoting?

df(x)/dx, becuse people need to learn what a function is.

Leibniz notation lets me keep track of what I'm differentiating without having to define a new function

How about you stop being a physishit? There are three saner notations that are known by virtually everyone.
[eqn]f'\left(x\right)[/eqn]
[eqn]\dot f\left(t\right)\qquad\text{if }t\text{ is time}[/eqn]
[eqn]\mathrm D_xf\left(x\right)[/eqn]

>Lagrange's notation is the worst notation for using the euler-lagrange equations

Can someone explain this?

[eqn]L_{x}(t,q(t),{\dot {q}}(t))-L_{vt}(t,q(t),{\dot {q}}(t))=0[/eqn]
It's not worse than if you used Leibniz' notation, although I'd rather use Euler's notation for partial derivatives.

> if t is time
Fucking lol, "the physical interpretation affects our notation"... calls other people physishits...