Castas

Why was race mixing acceptable in the Spanish Empire?
>In British empire it was a taboo

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Because it led to Catholic conversion and was considered a benevolent uplift of the lower races.

All I know is there's a reason Hispanic countries are shitholes and America, Australia, New Zealand (and, for some time, South Africa too) aren't.

What is it, then? Are you considering other factors like Australia, New Zealand and South Africa's much lower per capita/resource population? Are you considering the fact that the Anglospheric countries were established on top of existing weak, hunter-gatherer societies with small populations while the Spanish dealt with massive populations that already had notions of codes of law and other technologies

kys cunt

> Caring about race when there's heretics around
wew lad

It's kind of amazing how they had a name for almost every mix possible.

I find Spanish to be an incredibly ugly language. It feels like the linguistic equivalent of a sort of jealous, repressed and hateful underbelly, especially the inflections of South American accents, the racial vernacular and the general prosody of it.

Okay but what does that have to do with anything?

Amazing, for sure. But in concrete reality (can tell about guatemalan colonial experience, for example), that names of 'castas' are just in virtuality.

Are you implying all Latin American countries are high population density or stablished on top of high population density regions?
YOU kys , he is absolutely right, demographics = wealth in latin america, more indigenous = poorer less indigenous = richer, resources, climate and all those petty excuses have nothing to do with it.
Regards, angry Latin American tired of white american cucks thwarting reality to fit their agenda.

I hate listening to Spanish women. It's a horrendous noise.

Your opinions and tastes are shit. Also probably you associate the language as such due to poor illegals from Mexico.

this.

Kinda prefer Portuguese myself tho. More sultry.

Actually.

Horny conquistadors.

youtube.com/watch?v=qXEHYy12Gvg
thoughts?

Also includes "Indian conquistadors". That's a factor to consider. The "pure races" before the rise of "castas" doesn't look between they as equals. I mean... There is no correlation between Indians, because they are not equal. The same for Europeans. The theory of the two republics was just a theory. So... since conquest, the metissage was a reality.

The Casta system was theoretical and was highly dependent on local areas and in a wide span of time.


In places like in Mexico and firmly-held Areas, before the 1700s, only Men made the fucking trip to the dangerous Americas and they were subsequently told to create a society there. Who else would they marry but the locals. But when around the 1700s, Spanish women were beginning to arrive since the area is more or less tamed. Then they started talking about segregation.

And then there's the Philippines where the Spaniards did not hold very little advantages, necessitating the respect and cooperation of converted local power brokers to live there.

Finally, the fact that the Spanish Empire considered converted native nobles as part of the lower class nobility called the "Principalia." It was these people whom Spanish Officers & Officials married to solidify their hold over the natives.

Which is why it further makes the Casta system theoretical: a spain-born, tr00 bl00 Spaniard theoretically is above a mestizo. But if that mestizo belonged to a principalia family whose senpai owned large tracts of land since one of Cortez's officers married a daughter of that family, and you're just a purebred Spaniard peasant newly arrived off the boat after being fucking poor in Spain, then you're the lower kind of lifeform.

what?

this

The fact is that:

>Spanish Empire: integrated natives, protected them. Even when wars of independence, natives were in Spanish Crown side.
>British Empire: killed natives, genocide

And you see how currently, almost all Latin America is a mix of natives, white people and castas, while North America is white people and descendents from African slaves, since all natives were destroyed.

Funny thing how the Leyenda Negra says Spain was evil with natives when in fact Spain was the only empire which protected them

>As a spic, I'm tired of white people trying to say spics aren't retarded

t. Totally Real Spic

Well, most English words are monosyllabic grunts and foreigners don´t complain.

Those youtube videos of Dogs pronouncing words can only be made with a language like English.

youtube.com/watch?v=JRjP7gHwF8I

t. Randy Spaniard

lack of women also spain itself is a mixed nation, being the border between europe and north africa

Also the vatican endorsed racemixing as a means of spreading their religion/power, they did the same thing in the US with irish, italian, mexican and sudaca immigrants. This is why Plutarco Elías Calles did nothing wrong by persecuting them.

Post of the year

I don't know why this is so funny

It is literally the catholic church. Even putting their promotion of racemixing aside, they intentionally kept most indios and so forth illiterate for decades until the government setup schools (much to their chagrin). They also stole wealth, whatever surplus money ("disposable income") people generated they handed right over to their local priest who mailed it to his bishop who sent it to the Vatican. This prevented social mobility from happening until the mexican civil war (1910-30 for you amurifats).

At every point, they prevented progress from happening. It is only very recently (the 1950s, following ww2 when communism had successfully taken over poland and croatia) have they started moving away from it (mostly by embracing populist communism).