The probability of any event occurring is 100% after you have the information that it has occurred

The probability of an event *having occured* when you know it occurred is 1.

You cannot accurately make predictions of events which would be effected by the prediction. See halting problem.

Also, you cannot have perfect knowledge of every atom. See uncertainty principle.

No. The probability of an event happening *knowing that it has happened* is 1 (ie. the conditional probability is 1). If you rolled a 6 with a normal die, the probability of having rolled that 6 was always 1/6, but the probability of having rolled it knowing that you would roll it is 1

I generally do not understand what you mean.
If you could explain that would help me.

I am reading up on the halting problem now.
Your second sentence i'm inclined to disbelieve however, I will give it a read first.

You're messing up your tenses.
Probabilities are for the future. If you know that a thing has occurred, trying to use probability to describe that fact is fundamentally retarded.

I flip two coins. I tell you that at least one of the coins landed on heads. What is the probability both landed on heads?

P(A | A) = 1 yes that's true

OK, yeah, I wasn't clear the first time, I didn't mean that probability can't describe things that happened in the past, since you can have imperfect information.

I guess I imagined OP looking at a coin with a heads on it and asking "what is the probability that this coin comes up heads" when it's already heads it's right there there is no imperfect information that you're trying to bridge

>He uses percentages for probability.
>This has a 0% probability of occurring since the observing unit is part of its universe.
>an entity cannot observe itself
>Information is created through self-observation. Draw your own conclusions.
>Probabilities are for the future
>there is no imperfect information that

I swear, everytime there's a thread about quantum physics or probability, all the tards with a bachelor's degree in egineering/philosophy/cs come to spoil them with cringy views of certain topics they studied less than the hours they've put into looking for a great porn scene to cum your filthy dick to.

>I'm 12 and cringe at everything.

It is perfectly fine to desribe a probability with a percentage

What if P(A)=0?

No
someone might have lied to u m8

>What if P(A)=0?
An event not occurring is itself an event.

The probability is [math]\frac{1}{2}[/math]; it either happened or it didn't.

>What if P(A)=0?
An event not occurring is itself an event. So if P(A)=0 and P(B) is !A then P(B) would then be 1.

Something is always happening.

No; an event can have probability 0 and still occur.

So in this case the formula for P(A | A) = P(A)/P(A) is [math]\frac{0}{0}[/math].

I'm not comfortable with what you're saying for obvious reasons.

> an event can have probability 0 and still occur.
proof?

You select a random real number between 0 and 1. What is the probability that number is [math]\frac{1}{2}[/math]? It is 0. In fact, the probability of selecting any specific number is 0. So whatever you pick, the probability of that event happening is 0.

It is a common misconception that "probability 0" means "impossible".

well, no shit, stochastics fall apart when applied to infinity bullshit

Prove that you actually can select such a number.

It's basic measure theory, which is the foundation of probability theory and stochastic analysis...

For instance, the probability of any given walk in Brownian motion is 0.

Either you don't know what a uniform probability distribution is, or you don't know that math has nothing to do with the nebulous concept of "physically possible."

>This has a 0% probability of occurring since the observing unit is part of its universe.
retard pls go

Still waiting for a proof that you can select a 'random real number'.
Show the selection function, then evaluate it and show an example.

Yeah, I know. But as your examples show, the concept of probability becomes meaningless when applied to systems with an infinite amount of possible outcomes

Thanks. I feel like this is a problem with how the theory works out.
[math] \lim_{x\to 0 } \frac{x}{x} =1 [/math], not 0/0

Then I guess the concept of probability used to derive properties of Brownian motion is useless.

So much for physics.

Heh, yes, I was merely pointing out an issue with the naive formula because it is good to challenge preconceptions; the real theory is certainly fine.

>Then I guess the concept of probability used to derive properties of Brownian motion is useless.
Then you would guess wrong and would have made that guess based on a gross misunderstanding/ strawman of my post

There are infinitely many paths a particle in Brownian motion may take, but they still follow a probability distribution.

Why am I even here.

Take your pedophile cartoons back to .

Fucking degenerate.

>If you're able to observe every molecule
Even if you did, you still cannot predict some QM phenomena.

I know.
see
Mabe read
math.uah.edu/stat/brown/Standard.html
stat.purdue.edu/~chen418/study_research/StochasticCalculus-note1.pdf

Stop forcing your shitty """meme""", dear summerchild. This cant be fun.

So why are you saying the concept of probability becomes meaningless? We can use that measure-theoretic notion to derive that the probability that Brownian motion in 2 dimensions returns to its original location is nonzero, while in 3 dimensions it is 0. Very meaningful concepts from a supposedly meaningless notion.

You keep telling me things I already know and that are not really related to the posts that I am making. This is now the 5th post you are doing this and it took me this long to realize you might be trolling. so congrats, I guess

If thats not the case:
I never said anywhere that the maths related to stochastic arent useful to learn things

Since you want to call me a retard I feel I should say I was just trying to explain the uncertainty principle and incompleteness theorem in a way anyone could understand as applied to the particular case.

Fuck off, weeb

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