Why is this true?

Why is this true?

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???

only if X, Y and B are elements of a field, if concatenation of symbols implies multiplication, and the vertical bar implies division as in ordinary arithmetic

Y = Y/1

It's the distributive property of multiplication you mong.

Because multiplication is commutative and associative.
[math](XY)B^{-1}=X(YB^{-1})=X(B^{-1}Y)=(XB^{-1})Y[/math]

XY/B = XY(B)^-1 = X(B)^-1Y

...

>vertical bar
All this effort to be pedantic, and you still fuck it up.

Please elaborate. Remind me what the distributive property is. Fucking mong.

think of it like you aren't dividing by B, but multiplying by B^-1

[math] \displaystyle
\frac{4\cdot 6}{2}=\frac{4}{2}\cdot 6=i^{2}\left ( -\frac{1}{12}
\right )^{-1}
[/math]

end me now

Do it yourself, roodypoo

>Why does multiplication commute with division?

it just does. by definition

this

hahahha didnt realize it until you said it.

nice :D

Because division is just multiplication by the multiplicative inverse.

Why does x*y*1/b equal xy/b?

because A=A*1

Impressive digits

best post here

...

idiocracy

They are merely different ways of modeling the same concise answer.

The answer you might be looking for is that division represents a ratio of the numerator over the denom so they are bound to affect all multiplicants.

I get why XY/B = X(Y/B) but I don't get why log (XY/B) = logX + log(Y/B)

This /thread

Only if Y=1

[math]\log{a\cdot b} = \log{a}+\log{b}[/math]
[math]\log{\frac{a}{b}} = \log{a}-\log{b} [/math]

Syntax

>women and niggers

Division is multiplying by 1/x.
Multiplication is commutative.

If there is no operation sign it either means AND or multiplication.

Because its literally the exact same fucking expression on both sides.

Putting the Y on the side just gives us more context for what the Y is supposed to mean.

For example:
The equation for the volume of a triangular prism:

[math]\left. \frac{bh}{2}\right t\left. \frac{bh}{2}\right t[/math]

Can be written

[math]\left. \frac{bht}{2}\right\left. \frac{bht}{2}\right[/math]

But makes to do it the first way because

[math]\left. \frac{bh}{2}\right\left. \frac{bh}{2}\right[/math]

Is the area for a triangle, and keeping this idea separate from thickness (t) makes the equation easier to understand and interpret.

AND is multiplication :^)

How do I differ Mixed Numbers from Multiplication?

Yes, assuming certain conditions.
I would also add one more:
Multiplication needs to be commutative. That means that they have to be scalars (yes, I know that other ways are possible, but I would need more lines).

>Remind me what the distributive property is
Jesus Christ I mean I always thought this board was full of undergrads and high schoolers but it's stuff like this that really makes me question why I take anything here seriously.

Multiplication is associative and commutative. It doesn't matter what order you perform multiplication at all.

>over 30 posts for this

jesus christ

(1/Y)(X/B) = ((XY)/B)
(1/X)(Y/B) = ((XY)/B)

Yeah no shit.

???

Say you and your crew sit down to enjoy X bottles of vodka of volume Y between the B of you. You can either share each bottle in sequence pouring Y/B per person per bottle, repeating the process X times, each person will end up with xy/b overall consumption. Now, if you're not a scheming cunt who plans to cheat his homeboys by pouring himself some more on the side, you'll pour the drinks out at the start. The total volume is XY so between B people you get xy/b. QED

Beautiful, and lovely double dubs as well.

Because you're just changing the order of the operations.

Take X, scale up by factor Y, then scale down by factor B.

Or take X, scale down by factor B, then scale up by factor Y.

Okay so 1/(1/12) = 12. As does 24/2. But I don't understand what your post proved.

PEMDAS brah

m.youtube.com/watch?v=w-I6XTVZXww

Kek

Well, it is vertical, from a certain point of view.

i isnt a real number so your example has nothing to do with the real problem OP posted

Level with me guys: does the number 12 have magic powers?

>Retard gives retarded explanation
Never change, Veeky Forums.

Am I wrong, then?

I'm not a retard - simply not up on the math lingo like some are. I still have the ability to see for myself why it's so, regardless of how well I can express this in words.

Besides, it's just another perspective on the same thing - it might chime with some people.

Associative property.

(X*Y)(1/B) = (X*1/B)(Y)

is it always?
What if B is 0 :^)

Yes.

The limits of both equations would go to infinity.