If you want to keep posting on Veeky Forums, you should be able to solve this. No cheating.
Brainlet filter
Other urls found in this thread:
en.wikipedia.org
wolframalpha.com
math.stackexchange.com
wolframalpha.com
twitter.com
solve what? It's an expression, not a problem.
simplify to a reasonable closed form formula. don't play dumb
0
en.wikipedia.org
>In mathematics, a closed-form expression is a mathematical expression that can be evaluated in a finite number of operations.
seems like it is already in "closed form"
what does N stand for?
/thread
Holy shit
no, I'm serious, what does it mean in this particular expression
wow you must be the first person to ever figure out that when people use 'closed form' they're typically not using a rigorous mathematical notion. Bravo to you, you're so fucking clever. I bet you link to that wikipedia article every time you take a test that uses the phrase "closed form"
He wants an expression in terms of N. For example, [math] \sum_{i=1}^N i = \frac{N^2-N}{2} [/math]
>every time you take a test that uses the phrase "closed form"
never took a test that used that phrase, because i don't take brainlet classes
Not OP but holy shit, you know what he fucking means.
By closed form he means "remove the sum sign". It is a nice problem and so far I don't see a trivial answer.
>every time you take a test that uses the phrase "closed form"
Yeah, the formula in the OP is an example of a closed form equation similar to what you'd see on a test. What are you even trying to say? Retard
k=0
sin(k) = sin(0) = 0
fuck, then I don't find it possible here
no bully pls, I'm a hexagon specialist
>remove the sum sign
[eqn] \sin(0)+\sin(1)+...+\sin(N-1)+\sin(N) [/eqn]
good lad
answer is here OP
>Problem #1: Evaluate the integral of cos(x) from 0 to pi
>Answer: It's already in closed form XD
It's just not as clever as you think and it gets tiring seeing it over and over when people would rather be pedants than just solve the actual problem
do you want an interpolation?
>I am not afraid of derailing a good thread and showing I have the worst type of autism.
Consider suicide.
>integrals are evaluated in a finite number of operations
Consider suicide
>Consider suicide
Consider suicide.
that is not possible, op
good job, now that nobody can keep posting on Veeky Forums, it's dead
Yes they are? At least some of them
for a sum up to N
[eqn]\frac{\sin N - \cot\frac{1}{2}\cos N+\cot\frac{1}{2}}{2}[/eqn]
brainlets i swear...
>that is not possible, op
At least you can be confirmed for a fucking brainlet. Leave Veeky Forums immediately.
Answer is here: wolframalpha.com
Now, let us grown men remember series and find how wolfram reached the solution.
I am sure r/science will take you in.
Proof or it didn't happen.
Anyone here can type ask wolfram to compute it.
Get out of my sight, brainlet
math.stackexchange.com
For all the brainlets here: The hint is that its actually a sum of two geometric sums
Not by the real definition of the integral
>>Consider suicide
>Consider suicide.
Consider suicide
>I simply looked up the solution elsewhere
Killjoy. Consider suicide.
OP, next time find a more obscure problem.
lol manlet
I couldn't be bothered to use Veeky Forums built-in LaTeX.
>I'm a hexagon specialist
sophomores out
nice work, that's my solution as well
S-same
yes i arrived at the same conclusion
Now, what happens as N -> infinity?
Obviously, the series does not converge, but is it O(N) (this is my suspicion)?
It's the partial sum which is what the original problem entails.
just did the wolframalpha search.
It checks out.
This answer's correct too, but it's not detailing the partial sum. lol.
Here we go.
Those are completely different sorts of problems. You can't "solve" an expression, but you can evaluate a function at a point.
...
[math]\sin(k)[/math]
wat
it's a stupid joke about removing the sum sign
>All these retards who can't solve it
You literally just sum [math]\sum_{k \,=\, 0}^N \mathrm e^{\mathrm i\,k}[/math], use the half-arc technique to make nifty trigonometry functions appear and conclude by taking the imaginary part of that.
watching mythbusters is enuff
It's O(1), you turd.
It's literally 0, solved it in 1.35 seconds
I wish to stop posting but every path I take seems to bring me right back. I walk the path of peace and least resistance, so I only know to return here.
>>>Consider suicide
>>Consider suicide.
>Consider suicide
Consider suicide.
I'm a junior math major and I've never even heard this phrase before. How are we supposed to know what the fuck you mean if you're not using the accepted definition?
My thoughts exactly, but mine is regarding a different problem entirely.
>>>>Consider suicide
>>>Consider suicide.
>>Consider suicide
>Consider suicide.
Considering suicide.
>Considering suicide.
Good for ya.
Use method of differences
Using cosine angle formulas and MOD, the answer requires no complex exponentials, although it is more tedious to derive it this way
same
phew, glad i didn't have to type it all out!
Are we doing this with Maclaurin series or what?
The maximum
GEENIUS
I'd say the complex exponential is more elegant than any arcane cosine formula.
This sum is more fun goys, have a go:
[math]\text{Find} \ \ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\sin n}{n}[/math]
this problem was going to appear in a STEP paper (brainlet filter exam for cambridge maths), but they decided against it, so it's definitely possible
[eqn] \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{\sin n}{n} = \frac{1}{2} (\pi - 1) [/eqn]
Prove the infinite series [math] \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{ \sin 2n }{ 1 + \cos^4 n} [/math] is convergent.
yep, proof?
Just use a Barnettian integral convergence test
Isn't this too advanced for an entrance exam?
well I was being slightly misleading in my post, in reality this question would be part of a multi-part one, in which this the conclusion of multiple other results (like all other STEP questions), so for instance I'd imagine the question would go:
a) prove this sum of cosines formula
b) prove this integral representation for this harmonic sine sum
c) prove this upper and lower bound on the integral
d) hence prove the result
(which is how the proof would go in an elementary fashion)
what this guy said
I can't be bothered to write it properly, so here is a shitty photo of my shitty handwriting
maybe there is a mistake in there
You write really fucking ugly for a Frenchman
How did you guess that I'm French?
Genuinely interested
>op(N) = sum(sin(k) for k in 0:N)
did i do good?
The paper you are using is only used in France basically. Not the guy btw.
So it's just that
I was thinking something too complex about how i write the equations
I just used some draft paper that was lying about on my desk
I know that it's not zero because we're using integer whole numbers which are not going to cancel out.
Even as N approaches infinity you cannot say there will be an equal probability distribution.
Use the well known formula for Dirichlet kernel, shift the parameter and use symmetry.
How do wanting to post on sci and being able to solve something that isn't a problem? And why is it do? Is logic not essential in science?
I walk 2 paths at the same time. They go in opposite directions.
[eqn]f(\alpha)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{\sin{\alpha n}}{n} = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{\sin{\alpha n}}{n}[/eqn]
[eqn]f'(\alpha) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}{\cos{\alpha n}}=-1+\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}{\cos{\alpha n}}=-1+\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{1}{1-e^{i\alpha}}+\dfrac{1}{1-e^{-i\alpha}}\right)= -1
+\dfrac{1-\cos{\alpha}}{2\cos{\alpha}}
[/eqn]
[eqn]f(\alpha)=C-\alpha+\int \dfrac{1-\cos{\alpha}}{2\cos{\alpha}}d\alpha [/eqn]
Sorry I'm to lazy to integrate that shit
Oh yeah and it should be [math]f(0)=0[\math] to determinate C
[math]f(0)=0[/math]
wrong slash
Can you cross the street without staring at your cell-phone? Can you blow your nose, which most cell-phone addicts can't do? These should be on an intelligence test!
ITT people who don't know basic calculus
So using Mathematica, I even find that if you pass from sin(n) to sin(k·n), the sum equals
(1/2)·(pi - k)
But it returns this as
(i/2)·log(-e^(i·k))
Does anybody know how to get from the latter to the former?
I didn't expect anyone to get the reference, but here we are.
just use log(-x) = ipi + log(x)
>It takes me an infinite number of operations to evaluate any integral
Integrals are defined as the sum of infinite number of infinitesimally small elements but evaluating an integral does not take an infinite number of operations. Go take a calc 1 course you brainlet
>Integrals are defined as the sum of infinite number of infinitesimally small elements
no they aren't
go take an analysis course moran
-1/12
>this is the type of person who browses Veeky Forums
The real brainlet filter: reformulate sum i=1 to n sin((2*i + 1)*x) into a form that can easily be calculated with a table of values of sin(x) (of course, if x>2pi, you can just repeatedly subtract values of pi until you get in the range provided in the table).
What identify was used here?
I'm sorry I'm literally retarded
>you should be able to understand
>the meaning of the word "solve"
FTFY
>when retards use 'closed form' they're typically >not using a rigorous mathematical notion
FTFY
>I am not afraid of derailing a shit thread
FTFY
slowclap.gif
XXDDDDDDDDD
i was a mistake
that [math]\exp{ix} = \cos x+ i\sin x[/math]
then that the sum of a geometric progression with multiplicative term [math]r[/math] up to [math]N[/math] is [math]\frac{1-r^{N+1}}{1-r}[/math]
Then a lot of fraction simplification