The formulas are derived using calculus and trigonometry. It's not a case of evaluating the formula and checking the digits against pi
Chase Johnson
fug :DD my formula didn't work
Lucas Rogers
[eqn]1 + 1/4 + ... = pi^2/6[/eqn]
Austin Robinson
Forgot a \ there
Gavin Wright
yes
learn [math]\LaTeX[/math] for fucks sake
Elijah Ortiz
>What's the proof that each of these actually amount to Pi? Who's to say that every digit is identical and spot on except for the 500^2'th digit?
This is done using calculus, or if you want to be fancy then you can call it real anal.
When you do anal for real, you define a sequence and you "think of" a number that it converges to. Then, through some weird mathematical machinery, you can prove that your given sequence does converge to that number.
In this case, these people constructed this sequences probably by using some method they found for approximating Pi, and then naturally you think that if you were to continue this approximation you would, at infinity, reach Pi.
Then, after you think that, you find the definition of convergence and prove rigorously that indeed that is the case by doing a lot of gay inequalities.
Jonathan Martin
Someone found a formula similar to OP's which yields the first billion digits but then begins to differ from pi. The trick is to start with a well known identity such as the gaussian integral [math]\left(\int e^{-x^2}\right)^2 = 2\pi[/math] and approximate it with a discrete series, e.g. writing the integral as a Riemann sum.
That is neat and all, but why would you use more than 16 digits to get 16 digits? An explanation of why that produces near Pi and why it breaks at the 17th digit would be nice. If it has nothing to do with the properties of a circle, and is merely an overly complicated way to calculate 16 digits of a known constant, then where is the value?
Cooper Evans
[math]1_{\pi}[/math] :^)
Jaxon Collins
>1 is prime
Aaron Reyes
>brainlet I can tell. Because that doesn't properly work. You could also write it as [math]\mathrm {ln} \frac { -1} {\mathrm i} = 180 °[/math]. The [math]\pi[/math] comes only from choosing radians.
Nicholas Lee
wat if e^iπ = -1 then ln(-1) = iπ ln(-1)/i = π why would I need radians or whatever?