So you know the whole deal with that because the digits of pi are infinite and never repeat they contain every single...

So you know the whole deal with that because the digits of pi are infinite and never repeat they contain every single string of numbers, and if translated into letters, every single book ever written.

I saw somewhere someone showing this isn't the case, that it's not necessarily true, but I can't remember why, does anyone know?

Other urls found in this thread:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number
libraryofbabel.info/theory.html
twitter.com/NSFWRedditVideo

If pi contained every possible combination of numbers, that would include a sequence of never ending .9s taking up all of the space that adds up to 1

Pi != 1

...

There are infinitely many numbers between 0 and 1. None of those numbers are 2.

.2
.22
.22282.
.5342
.22222222252722256229292262222222628222

>digits of pi are infinite and never repeat
Never ending nines sort of repeat.

>and never repeat
wrong

I think he means they never get locked into a repeating pattern, as opposed to "there are never repetitions of a sequence."

Pi has not been proved to be a normal number. It "appears" to be normal.

It means every possible finite combination retard.

He's talking about the digits, not the value of the number

Pi is irrational, moron.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number

Pi is not proved to be normal. Whether it's true or false is anyone's guess, people generally believe it's true but to claim it definitively is, is wrong.

Also whether it will contain texts depends on how you translate digits into letters. You can just map the number 1 to the entire works of Shakespeare and that shit is trivial.

Pi, just like e and infinite (and negatives, reals and complex numbers) are an anomaly.
They don't exist in the real world and are only abstract concepts.
They certainly help us figure things out in the real world, as they're insanely useful (read shortcuts)
Like, think about what pi represents. It's the value you get when you divide the circumference by the diameter of a circle. It's a way to represent a perfect object, and if you want to be inifinitely precise (amount of angles converging to infinite, you need pi calculated to infinity)

cool ill tell the bank my debts dont exist, they are just a useful tool ;^)

desu senpai

I'm sorry, can you explain to me what numbers do exist ?

1
1+1
1+1+1

there might be more but noone knows yet

>So you know the whole deal with that because the digits of pi are infinite and never repeat they contain every single string of numbers, and if translated into letters, every single book ever written.
a supposition and not guaranteed or known to be true

the integers 1 to 10^200

gr8 b8 m8 i r8 8/8

Numbers exist in nature. For example, a sea she'll is a 9, a bird is a 3, an egg is a 0, etc. You need to observe carefully to realize that math is all around us.

>You can just map the number 1 to the entire works of Shakespeare and that shit is trivial.
that's absurd, and also no decent way to encode data. What he's talking about is whether Pi is a Library of Babel unto itself or not.

libraryofbabel.info/theory.html

infinity doesn't actually exist, it's a ruse by the kikes to misdirect the Goyims mental energy

>digits of pi are infinite and never repeat

Incorrect.

Also, you should check out the "Library of Babel".

> carefully observe mushroom with my digestive system
> each thing associated with a number through it's fractal dimension
> become aware of other types of number
> transcend integer realism, I a now able to understand deeper levels of reality
> realize the number for mushroom is [math] \infty[/math], except it's reversed upside down and mirrored in the third dimension
> can't reveal this to the world because integers police would hunt me down
> begin ascending myself into the higher dimension completely
> I am now a living proof that transcendental numbers exist

get on my level plebs

the wildberger secret police have been informed

they are approximating your position by countable rational sequences as we speak

>making a concerted effort to be autistic
3.1415999999999999999999999..... != 1 no matter how many nines you tack on

None of those numbers are two, retard.

theres no such thing as a half apple
just one half of one apple

math isnt real, get over it nerds

Its a completely valid map, the point is that how you define the map is important, and theres no "correct" way to do it ya fuck.

Then please do go on. Does every cipher "1" equal shakespeare's works? Or only those preceded by a certain amount of other numbers? Will all bodies of literature made be assigned an n-digit number? It's absurd, and entirely invalid. You will not be able to recall any information using only a card-sorting-system, if that information is not already available, thus rendering the whole translation into pi absolutely arbitrary. I honestly hope this is bait, I haven't met such a stupid line of failed reasoning in months.
What about the works lost in the fire at Alexandria? What about books burned for heresy, or forbidden and purged from circulation by oppressive regimes? What about unpublished works?

A library of babel method would of course cover all these, including LOTR where Frodo is renamed "Trump" or every fifteenth letter is an X. You clearly don't understand the question, and should refrain from answering, as you obviously don't understand what you're talking about.
Consider ending your contribution to the gene pool.

If the digits are infinite and never repeat, you couldn't necessarily get every string of numbers or book ever written because those things contain repeating sequences inside them. Like spaces, or short words like "and" and "the".

Fucken read more and post less.

There wouldn't be any lengthy repeating sub pattern using only the digits 0-9 we could match uniquely to spaces or short words that wouldn't overlap with larger words and cause a problem.

Then pairs of digits represent three sets of 33+1 characters, you uncreative cuck.

But what about lowercase and puncuation? Also pictures for picture books?

given that pi NEVER repeats, then yes, as you move to infinity the presence of every finite combination becomes increasingly probable
my own opinion though is that although any combination's probability of presence continually moves toward 100% it never quite reaches it, because it's equally possibly for infinite digits to be reached without that single combination.
for example, if you rewrote pi leaving out every instance of "93", it would still be infinitely long, same goes for "4011354892364", or the bible translated into binary

Is it possible to prove that a number is normal?

>he doesn't know what the library of babel is

If you're so smart, then tell me, could the directory and book listing of the library of babel be represented with the digits of pi? Complete with a blurb and picture for every text ever written past, present, and future, including the directory/book listing itself?

Set up your map this way:
[math]0\mapsto\text{the works of Shakespeare}[/math]
[math]1-9\mapsto\text{a}[/math]

That's a perfectly valid function from a sequence of 0-9 digits to written language. This is precalc math, even a high schooler could see this.

Now you probably meant converting pi to binary and mapping groups of 8 binary digits to its ascii character. But that's not the only or the right way to map between digits and letters. My point is you need to define the map before such a question is even coherent. And its not obviou how you would do that, becase given how large function spaces are, there exists a map where the statement is trivially true because theres no right way to go about this.

Also please calm down and accept you dont know everything before making a post like yours. You should feel embarrassed.

You cannot guarantee any given finite string of digits exists, but that says nothing about what data is contained, because you need a well-defined map.

>What he's talking about is whether Pi is a Library of Babel unto itself or not.
>libraryofbabel.info/theory.html

That incoherent mess of a web page in no way relates to the problem of whether pi contains every possible finite sequence of digits.

This is false. The sequence 9,0,9,0,0,9,0,0,0,9,0,0,0,0,9,... never repeats but does not contain all possible finite sequences.

It's relatively easy to construct one, but it's much harder to prove for any found irrational number. In general it's very hard to prove things about irrational numbers. We don't even know if [math]\pi\cdot e[/math] is irrational.

You sure condescend alot for how ignorant you are.