Has mathematical theorem ever been found wrong after it has been accepted by the mathematical community...

Has mathematical theorem ever been found wrong after it has been accepted by the mathematical community? Let's start counting from years of Pythagoras (~500 B.C.)

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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grunwald–Wang_theorem

>fake proof in 1933
>another fake proof in 1942
>counterexample found in 1948

>Some days later I was with Artin in his office when Wang appeared. He said he had a counterexample to a lemma which had been used in the proof. An hour or two later, he produced a counterexample to the theorem itself... Of course he [Artin] was astonished, as were all of us students, that a famous theorem with two published proofs, one of which we had all heard in the seminar without our noticing anything, could be wrong. - John Tate

Euler's Sum of Primes conjecture was believed by a majority of mathematicians until a counterexample was found in the 1950's.

According to those who actually understand IUD, they believe it to be incorrect

>IUD

Inter Universal Dickmeasuring theory
Because that's all it really is.

but OP said
>after it has been accepted by the mathematical community

Well, measure theory has been accepted for a long time.

>comparing measure theory to IUT

I am comparing measure theory with dick measure theory.

>tmw the board is so autistic I have to explain the jokes