Has mathematical theorem ever been found wrong after it has been accepted by the mathematical community? Let's start counting from years of Pythagoras (~500 B.C.)
Has mathematical theorem ever been found wrong after it has been accepted by the mathematical community...
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>fake proof in 1933
>another fake proof in 1942
>counterexample found in 1948
>Some days later I was with Artin in his office when Wang appeared. He said he had a counterexample to a lemma which had been used in the proof. An hour or two later, he produced a counterexample to the theorem itself... Of course he [Artin] was astonished, as were all of us students, that a famous theorem with two published proofs, one of which we had all heard in the seminar without our noticing anything, could be wrong. - John Tate
Euler's Sum of Primes conjecture was believed by a majority of mathematicians until a counterexample was found in the 1950's.
According to those who actually understand IUD, they believe it to be incorrect
>IUD
Inter Universal Dickmeasuring theory
Because that's all it really is.
but OP said
>after it has been accepted by the mathematical community
Well, measure theory has been accepted for a long time.
>comparing measure theory to IUT
I am comparing measure theory with dick measure theory.
>tmw the board is so autistic I have to explain the jokes