that for exactly 1 six, for one or more its 1 - chance for 10 non sixes as you said, which is 1 - (1 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6) ~ 84%
the 10 in the first one is because there is 10 ways to pick 1 six out of the 10 rolls, the 1 in the second one is because theres only 1 way to pick 0 sixes out of 10 rolls.
Kevin Phillips
1 - chance of throwing exactly one six - chance of throwing 0 sixes
Joshua Collins
well, I dont feel like I understand, but whatever numbers seem plausible so I take your word for it
probability utilizes measure theory, but is still pseudoscience, the same as astrology utilizes astronomy.
Benjamin Campbell
You can just calculate the probability of getting 2 sixes, the probability of getting 3 sixes etc all the way through 6 and then just sum up all the probabilities
In other words punch pic related into wolfram
I am 99 + 0.999... percent sure this is true
Jaxson Nguyen
only good post in the thread
Ryan Foster
and then you can roll five hundred die and not get a single six.
probability is psuedoscience.
Zachary Garcia
Basically you are asking whats the chance of getting one six in 5 rolls. And thats 5/6^5 = 0.40
Camden Wood
>probability is psuedoscience tell that to Las Vegas
Charles Edwards
is this a Veeky Forums meme or are people this retarded?
Michael Gonzalez
no, it's 1-P(no sixes)-P(one six)
about 51.5%
William Murphy
las vegas has just been fortunate with consistency up until today. someday, they will experience the equivalent of five hundred non-six rolls in a row and there will be a localized economic crisis. inevitability.
demonstrate probability as a model of reality.
Jayden Ortiz
>a dice
Lucas Evans
>I don't understand Statistics so it's fake
Okay, bud.
Jose Wood
I'm not sure that's correct. Something about the dice not being effected by any other roll. nevermind
Carson Reed
No, it's retarded
Just take 1 and subtract the probabilities of getting 0 sixes and 1 six
Chase Cook
I am kinda confused on the k=0 row k is number of events that succeed? Right? but k = zero, it should not be just 0 and 1 in following columns? while the 64.56% actually fits when the k is = 1 and I do the classic 1-((1-p)^n) that I wrote in the opening post
Mason Harris
Well yeah that would be faster
Even better though, now OP can do it both ways and if he gets the same answer then it's legit
Mason Hill
k is the number of sixes you rolled 0.16 = (5/6)^10
Aaron Peterson
>what k=0 means with 10 throws, the probability of getting no sixes is a bit over 16%
Andrew Wilson
>while the 64.56% idk what that is
in 10 throws, the probability of getting 2 or more sixes is about 51.5%
Jacob Collins
do you have to rely on ad hominem or do you have an argument?
Andrew White
n(2, 10, 0.17)
1(6)x1(6). Binomial probability, theres tables to look up values in standard variance, though; unconditional probability an be equated to the multiplication of probability
(Unconditional probability is associative but not communicative)