Chance of getting 6 on a dice is 1/6 = ~17%

chance of getting 6 on a dice is 1/6 = ~17%
to calculate that we get at least one 6 in 10:

chance of not getting 6 = 100% - 17% = 83%
for 10 tries 0.83^10 = 0.15%
so chance of getting at least one six in 10 rolls is 85%

But how would I go with the question, of throwing at least two sixes?

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(1/6) * (1/6) * 1^8

p(X>1) X=B(10,1/6)

this does not seem correct

this does not make much sense to me

[eqn]{\binom {n}{k}}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k} [/eqn]
n number of rolls, k number of 6es, p probability of a 6.

>Binomial distribution
Fucking undergrads.

?

stattrek.com/probability-distributions/binomial.aspx
git gud

OP here, reading shit some

should not it be
1/6 * 1/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6

or in short 1/6^2 * 5/6^8

logic being that those are the chances of events occurring and we dont care about order
but actual results are so tiny that its absolutely bullshit

no, order does matter, wo you have to multiply it by all the ways it ca happen, which is 45.

so its

45 * 1/6 * 1/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 ~ 29%

and you get the 45 from 10 * 9 * 1/2

(10 * 9) because its the first 2 of 10,9,8,7,... and 1/2 because you want 2 6es.

>chance
Lrn2probability fgt pls

but when I calculated probability of single 6 in 10 throws I did not need to do that shit, even when 6 could come on first or third or last throw...

>single 6 in 10 throws
that's 10 * 1/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 ~ 32%


that for exactly 1 six, for one or more its 1 - chance for 10 non sixes as you said, which is 1 - (1 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6 * 5/6) ~ 84%

the 10 in the first one is because there is 10 ways to pick 1 six out of the 10 rolls, the 1 in the second one is because theres only 1 way to pick 0 sixes out of 10 rolls.

1 - chance of throwing exactly one six - chance of throwing 0 sixes

well, I dont feel like I understand, but whatever
numbers seem plausible so I take your word for it

probability is pseudoscience.

...

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fuck off, probability is literally measure theory

probability utilizes measure theory, but is still pseudoscience, the same as astrology utilizes astronomy.

You can just calculate the probability of getting 2 sixes, the probability of getting 3 sixes etc all the way through 6 and then just sum up all the probabilities

In other words punch pic related into wolfram

I am 99 + 0.999... percent sure this is true

only good post in the thread

and then you can roll five hundred die and not get a single six.

probability is psuedoscience.

Basically you are asking whats the chance of getting one six in 5 rolls.
And thats 5/6^5 = 0.40

>probability is psuedoscience
tell that to Las Vegas

is this a Veeky Forums meme or are people this retarded?

no, it's 1-P(no sixes)-P(one six)

about 51.5%

las vegas has just been fortunate with consistency up until today. someday, they will experience the equivalent of five hundred non-six rolls in a row and there will be a localized economic crisis. inevitability.

demonstrate probability as a model of reality.

>a dice

>I don't understand Statistics so it's fake

Okay, bud.

I'm not sure that's correct. Something about the dice not being effected by any other roll. nevermind

No, it's retarded

Just take 1 and subtract the probabilities of getting 0 sixes and 1 six

I am kinda confused on the k=0 row
k is number of events that succeed? Right?
but k = zero, it should not be just 0 and 1 in following columns?
while the 64.56% actually fits when the k is = 1 and I do the classic 1-((1-p)^n) that I wrote in the opening post

Well yeah that would be faster

Even better though, now OP can do it both ways and if he gets the same answer then it's legit

k is the number of sixes you rolled
0.16 = (5/6)^10

>what k=0 means
with 10 throws, the probability of getting no sixes
is a bit over 16%

>while the 64.56%
idk what that is

in 10 throws, the probability of getting 2 or more sixes is about 51.5%

do you have to rely on ad hominem or do you have an argument?

n(2, 10, 0.17)

1(6)x1(6). Binomial probability, theres tables to look up values in standard variance, though; unconditional probability an be equated to the multiplication of probability

(Unconditional probability is associative but not communicative)