What if Aristotle was just... wrong?

>"""""software""""' engineer

you mean fake engineer

They're both right, in a sense: you need both syntax and semantics to do logic.

Second guy says that syntax is better expressed in a functional paradigm (lambda calculus, and type theory if I'm interpreting correctly) since a program is essentially a sequence of instructions, which are essentially functions, which are essentially "verbs".
In contrast, stateful programming requires you to specify how the states are to be implemented (e.g., if the implementation is a Turing machine you must specify the alphabet set, number of tapes/heads etc., if it's a collection of boxes representing a set-theoretic model you need to specify the underlying axiomatization, if it's a register machine you need to specify the architecture, etc.). Essentially, you must specify the "nouns", which makes your programs non-portable: you can't share what you've written with anyone else unless they're using the same implementation as you, or you write translation software. (By this, I mean that stateful instructions like "move to register 42 and test if the number there is 0, if so copy the number in register 4 to register 6" are generally meaningless unless you know the specs of the machine it's written in.)

First guy says that in reality the implementation (i.e., semantics) ultimately requires a stateful paradigm, since you can't build a computer out of "verbs" the way you can with "nouns". I'm biased towards second guy (as if it wasn't clear from my infodump above) and think first guy's point is trivial, but I don't think it's wrong at all (and second guy doesn't seem to dispute it either).

We had programming languages long before Claude Shannon's thesis on using boolean logic for circuits, and the first program was written 5yrs before Boole's book introducing Boolean Algebra.

Nice bait though

I've always wondered this: what in modern logic, that is, post Principia Mathematica logic, cannot be formulated in Aristotelian syllogisms? What is inadequate about Aristotle's logic as compared to today's logic?

it's well-known (except by you) that Aristotle was wrong about Physics

>I'm just memeing
Lrn2meme fgt pls