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Solid proof illuminati exists
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>infinitesimal error repeated infinite times
nice try engineer
>implying this is anything unlike adding a lot of super duper thin rectangles
>can't even comprehend the difference between graphical approximation with loss and without loss
oh yeah, you would imply.
200 replies
>Who would win
>The cumulative effort of physishits since Newton
>One amateur mathematician
> Mathematician
Being a bit generous there eh?
I wasn't talking about OP.
Here is a similiar one
0.9 < 1
0.99 < 1
0.999 < 1
repeat to infinity
0.999... < 1
0.999... + 1/inf = 1
but why is this wrong though where does the error come from?
distance =/= length
it doesn't matter how many times you iterate the process, you will always have corners touching the perimeter and corners separated from it.
1/inf = 0 |*inf
=> 1 = 0
nope, infinity would kill the corners easily.
the problem is that the process for chance of shape doesn't include a process for change of length, like a normal Lim does
so all you end up proving is: pi
When you go to infinity < changes to ≤
uniform continuity
The square approximation doesn't converge uniformly to the circumference, so the area doesn't converge uniformly to pi
>The square approximation doesn't converge uniformly to the circumference
Do you even know what the fuck you're talking about?
yeah
its the same reason why a sequence of triangular peak functions with equal area and decreasing width does not converge uniformly
the approximation does coverge uniformly (or can you show a point that stay far from the circle for any iteration ?).
The problem comes from the fact that the length of a curve is the integral of it's slope, and the slope of the approximation doesn't converge to the slope of the circle (even if the curve DOES converge to a circle, the slope of the approximation stay "far" from the slope of the circle).
Thus length(lim(curve)) =/= lim(length(curve))
>repeat to infinity
No such thing.
nobel prize incoming, well done OP
>what is intuitive shorthand for simple concepts
cut it out njbilderberger
youtube.com
just watch this, OP
no, you don't know what you're talking about. it DOES converge uniformly. at every point, the farthest distance between the circle and the square is divided by two.