I need some help with something
Lets say that whites are 72% of the population, blacks are 13%, and 15% is other races.
Lets also say that Blacks commit 26% of the crime and whites commit 69% of the crime.
how much more likely are blacks to commit crime than whites, and in general? Show work so I can figure out how to do this myself.
Other urls found in this thread:
en.wikipedia.org
twitter.com
bump
bump
It is percentage of percentage that trips people up.
Take the total overall population number of one sub-group. 15% of that group would commit the crimes you speak of.
So if one groups has 500,000: Multiply 500,000 * .15 and you will get the actual number
i think you mistunderstood. Im trying to figure out how many times more likely blacks are committing crimes ie if blacks are 13% of the population they should be committing 13% of the crime, but they are actually committing 26% of the crime.
You are confusing percentages, go by the population count number first of the demographics and then the actual percentages of criminals of the demographics
As to why they have a higher ratio of crimes:
en.wikipedia.org
Long story short, MAO-A reduces expression of Dopamine (Reward related behavior) and Serotonin (Feelings of happiness and well being). Blacks have a lower amount of MAO-A which means higher expression of those neurotransmitters, thus they act differently in a country where a majority who have a lower neurotransmitter expression made the laws that they break.
In other words, they have trouble following laws made by people who are wired differently.
still not getting it. blacks committed 2,197,140 crimes which is 26% of crimes committed :
2,197,140*.26=571,256
what now?
2.08 times as likely
Interesting
Why would you use an example like this? Rude.
Anyway there's an ambiguity in your question of "how much more likely is A than B". Here are three interpretations/ways to answer it. The third one's best.
1. The difference between the probability of A and B is just
Pr(A) - Pr(B)
[In words, "The probability of A is ___ higher than the probability of B".
This is a bad one because e.g. the difference between 0.99 and 1, is actually more important than the difference between 0.5 and 0.51, even though they're both "a difference of 0.01".]
2. The ratio of the probability of A to the probability of B is
Pr(A) / Pr (B)
[In words, "The probability of A is ___ *times* the size of the probability of B".
This might be a bad one if e.g. you always want to be able to ask whether "this thing is twice as likely as that thing". If something has probability 0.9, then nothing could ever have "twice its probability" though. So what does it mean for something to be twice as likely as another thing?]
3. First convert from probabilities to odds. (E.g. "0.5 probability" means the same thing as "1:1 odds"; "0.75 probability" means the same thing as "3:1 odds") The equation for converting is O=P/(1-P), and the equation for converting back is P=O/(O+1).
I interpret "A is twice as likely as B" to mean the odds of A, are double the odds of B.
So to figure out how much more likely A is than B, in this sense, you want the ratio O(A)/O(B).
>Lets say
Let's Lrn2assume the hypothesis fgt pls
>It is percentage of percentage
Lrn2percent fgt pls
nibba can you it for me? the numbers are in the OP.
It's impossible to tell since the information given is the number of crimes committed by a certain group divided by the number of crimes, while the likelihood of committing crime is dependent on the distribution of those crimes over the population. For example, if blacks have only a few criminals that commit many crimes while whites have many criminals that commit a few crimes, then the likelihood of blacks to commit crime is lower than whites even if the number of crimes per black person is higher than the number of crimes per white person. Either a person commits crime or they don't.
I would say average crimes commited per person would be the best so total number of Afro African crimes/Number of Afro Americans.
ebin thread
I guess we can assume for the sake of analysis that all blacks and all whites respectively are equally likely to commit crimes
>blacks commit less crimes than they commit
If you can't do it yourself, you really don't deserve to go around posting about how whites are the superior race. Google Bayes' theorem if you need even more handholding, retard.
>how much more likely are blacks to commit crime than whites, and in general? Show work so I can figure out how to do this myself.
That would be (26% / 13%) / (69% / 72%), or about 2.09 times as likely.
Let's say that young black men are 8% of the population and commit 51% of all murders. How much more likely is a young black man to kill someone as opposed to the rest of the population? Can you walk me through the process of calculating this?
Using Bayes' theorem:
[eqn]\frac{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{crime} \mid \mathrm{black}\right)}{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{crime} \mid \mathrm{white}\right)} \,=\, \frac{\frac{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{black} \mid \mathrm{crime}\right)}{\mathrm P\left( \mathrm{black}\right)} \,\times\, \mathbf P\left(\mathrm{crime}\right)}{\frac{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{white} \mid \mathrm{crime}\right)}{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{white} \right)} \,\times\, \mathbf P\left(\mathrm{crime}\right)} \,=\, \frac{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{black} \mid \mathrm{crime}\right) \,\times\, \mathbf P\left( \mathrm{white} \right)}{\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{white} \mid \mathrm{crime}\right) \,\times\, \mathbf P\left( \mathrm{black}\right)} \,=\, \frac{26\% \,\times\, 72\%}{69\% \,\times\, 13\%} \,\approx\, 2.1[/eqn]
Therefore, [math]\mathbf P\left( \mathrm{crime} \mid \mathrm{black}\right) \,\approx\, 2.1\, \mathbf P\left( \mathrm{crime} \mid \mathrm{white}\right)[/math].
>whether whites are the superior race depends on the math knowledge of one Veeky Forums poster
I guess you must be nonwhite then.
thanks
This is false. The probability that someone is black given they committed crime is not the same as the percentage of crime committed by blacks. See
True, but since most offenders never get caught there's no reliable way to get the needed data though.
I think it's fair to assume that the distribution of number of crimes per person would be equal for whites and blacks, so the result of would be valid, no?
>Has no knowledge of poetry, art, classical music, mathematics or science
>I'M SUPURIOR BECUASE UDDER PEEPLE DU THAT 4 ME
Just because whites are better than niggers doesn't mean you're better than a nigger. A fact that OP would understand if he knew anything about probability.
This sounds like a good argument towards racial segregation.