Using "proof" by induction

It's not beyond ALL doubt, it's beyond a reasonable doubt. Saying "I know it really seems like I killed my wife, but dude what if we're all just brains in a vat?" isn't a reasonable argument.

shut the fuck up

That is not the reason induction works on the naturals. The naturals have an axiom called the well ordered property. Every nonempty subset of the naturals has a least element, 'a' such that a=1, If P(k) is true then P(k+1) is true.

Then P(n) is true for every natural n>=1.

Proof: Let S be the set of naturals such that P is false. Assume there is an element in S. Then S has a least element 'a' because S is a nonempty subset of the naturals. By assertion a=/=1 so a>1. Since a is least, a-1 is not in S, then P(a-1) is true. But by property 2, P(a) must be true. This is a contradiction and thus our assumption that S is nonempty is false. S is empty and P(n) is true for every natural n>=1.

>relying on classical maths in 2017

when does summer end?

[math]
\underline{induction}
\\
\underline{1^{\circ}} \\
f(n)= 1+2+3+...+n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2} \\
\underline{2^{\circ}} \\
n\rightarrow (n+1): \\
\left \{
\begin{align*}
f(n+1)&=1+2+3+...+n+(n+1) \\
f(n+1)&= \frac{n(n+1)}{2} + (n+1) \\
\end{align*}
\right.
\\f(n+1) = \frac{n(n+1)}{2} + (n+1) \\
= \frac{n^2+n+2n+2}{2} = \frac{n^2+3n+2}{2} \\
= \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{2} = \frac{(n+1)((n+1)+1)}{2} \\ \\
=> \text{if f(n) is ok, so is f(n+1)} \\
\underline{3^{\circ}} \\
f(1) = \frac{1(1+1)}{2} = 1

[/math]

>tfw bayesian

its fun watching you plebs squabble over induction

Not a math guy, but isn't mathematical "induction" deductive reasoning?

Yes. The name induction is a very poor choice. They should really be called recursive proofs or something like that.

>Q.E.D. OP is a retard